Which of the following statements regarding the explanations for the glass ceiling is incorrect?

Q1. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 4 only

Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect because Virtual Reality technology immerses users in a completely virtual environment that is generated by a computer. You need to wear a special VR headset to experience virtual reality. Most VR headsets are connected to a computer (Oculus Rift) or a gaming console (PlayStation VR) but there are standalone devices (Google Cardboard is among the most popular) as well. Most standalone VR headsets work in combination with smartphones – you insert a smartphone, wear a headset, and immerse in the virtual reality.
In augmented reality, users see and interact with the real world while digital content is added to it.
Pokemon Go is an example of augmented reality. If you own a modern smartphone, you can easily download an AR app and try this technology. There's a different way to experience augmented reality, though – with special AR headsets, such as Google Glass, where digital content is displayed on a tiny screen in front of a user's eye.
Hence, only statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Q2. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentiones in media in reference to

1. Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
2. An early human species
3. A cave system found in North-East India.
4. A geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Solution- (b)

The Denisovans or Denisovahominins are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo.The first evidence for Denisovans or Denisovahominins was first discovered in 2008 in a cave in the Altai mountains in Siberia. Analysis of a fossil jawbone containing molars recovered from Baishiya Karst cave in Xiahe, Gansu, China shows Denisovans lived in the Tibetan Plateau some 1,60,000 years ago. This is the firsttime evidence of Denisovan presence has been found outside the Denisova cave.

Q3. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
2. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.
3. A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
4. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Solution- (a)

Options C and D are correct: Given appropriate surroundings, most plant and animal cells can live, multiply, and even express differentiated properties in a tissue -culture dish. The cells can be watched continuously under the microscope or analyzed biochemically, and the effects of adding or removing specific molecules, such as hormones or growth factors, can be explored. In addition, by mixing two cell types, the interactions between one cell type and another can be studied. Experiments performed on cultured cells are sometimes said to be carried out in vitro (literally, “in glass”) to contrast them with experiments using intact organisms, which are said to be carried out in vivo (literally, “in the living organism”). • Options B is correct: DNA is an organic chemical molecule made from atoms of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous. Like many other organic molecules that are made inside living cells, DNA can also by synthesized in test tubes using the tools of organic chemistry. In most descriptions of DNA synthesis technology, we hear that DNAsequences can be made by simply adding together the A's T's C's and G's -- the "bases" that make the rungs of the twisted DNA ladder. • Options A is not correct: Functional chromosomes can not be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

Q4. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Digital Signature helps to identify the person holding it and not the certifying authority issuing it.Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Examples of physical certificates are drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards. • Certificates serve as a proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove your identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.

Q5. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Wearable technology is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin. The devices are hands -free gadgets with practical uses, powered bymicroprocessors and enhanced with the ability to send and receive data via the Internet.

• Location - and position - tracking sensors (i.e., GPS, altimeter, magnetometer, compasses, and accelerometers) are the most common type of sensors on wearable devices, such as activity trackers, smartwatches, and even medical wearables where they are used to check the physical activity and health of patients. Fitness trackers, also known as activity trackers, are typically worn on the wrist, chest, or ears, and are designed to monitor and track outdoor sport activities and measure fitness -related metrics, such as the speed and distance of running, exhalation, pulse rate, and sleeping habits .
• In more recent times, there has been a new surge in wearable technology worn on the ear, referred to as hearables. Hearing -Aids is a category of hearables involving use of a microphone, speaker and amplifier. This amplifies sounds to help people with hearing impairment hear. Example, PhonakAudeo V. Hence, all the options are correct.

Q6. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1 and 4 only

Solution- (a)

Statement 3 is incorrect because RNAi is not used to develop hormone replacement therapies. Statement 1,2 and 4 are correct.

Q7. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

1. 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
2. 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
3. Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
4. It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.

Solution- (b)

Merging of black holes helps to detect the gravitational wave ripples.

Q8. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect as Genetic predisposition of some people is not a reason for occurrence of MDR in microbial pathogens.

Q9. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news?

1. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
2. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
3. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
4. A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Solution- (a)

Cas9 (CRISPR associated protein 9) is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications as a molecular scissor.

Q10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
1. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Solution- (b)

Option b is correct as Hepatitis B vaccine is available and part of the Universal Immunization Program.

Q11. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Madras High Court has made an important observation in Dr. T. Rajakumari vs. The Government of Tamil Nadu that, once a High Court has struck down the provisions of the Central Act, it cannot be selectively applied in other States.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Judicial Review is available to Supreme Court for constitutional amendments.

Q12. Consider the following statements

Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is correct. PPP is calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In terms of PPP, India is the third largest economy in the world.

Q13. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (a)

Area under rice cultivation is the highest. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

Q14. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

1. Spices
2. Fresh fruits
3. Pulses
4. Vegetable oils

Solution- (d)

Edible Vegetable Oils are India's largest agricultural imports, followed by wood and wood products & Pulses sharing the 34%, 13%.

Q15. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraint
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Solution- (b)

The term 'liberty' means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals,and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities, thus the second aspect of the definition is more important i.e enabling an individual realize his inherent potential.

Q16. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

1. Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports
2. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
3. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
4. Following an expansionary monetary policy

Solution- (d)

Expansionary monetary policy is when the RBI would use its tools to stimulate the economy. That increases the money supply, lowers interest rates, and increases aggregate demand.

• Lower interest rates will also tend to reduce the value of the currency. If domestic interest rates fall relative to elsewhere, it becomes less attractive to save money in domestic banks.
• Therefore, it will lead to outflow of foreign currency and therefore, slide of Indian Rupee.

Q17. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Statement 2 is incorrect. The systems can be owned and operated by public as well private sector enterprises.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors

Q18. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. The European Union
4. The United States of America

Solution- (c)

The General Data Protection Regulation 2016/679 is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individual citizens of the European Union and the European Economic Area

Q19. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?

1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America

Solution- (b)

The Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field Identified Jointly by India and Russia was signed on 5th October, 2018 in New Delhi.

Q20. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

1. Increase in the cash reserve ratio
2. Increase in the banking habit of the population
3. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
4. Increase in the population of the country

Solution- (b)

The money multiplier is a key element of the fractional banking system. There is an initial increase in bank deposits (monetary base). The bank holds a fraction of this deposit in reserves and then lends out the rest.

Q21. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is correct. As of 22 April 2019, the total number of countries approved for membership of AIIB are 97.
Statement 2 is not incorrect. China is the largest shareholder.
Statement 3 is incorrect because members outside Asia are allowed in AIIB.

Q22. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

• To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit
• To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
• To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
• To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending

Solution- (a)

The purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by the Indian Banks and Financial Institutions is for faster resolution of stressed assets. It has been signed by 22 public sector banks, 19 private sector banks and 32 foreign banks and 12 major financial intermediaries like LIC, HUDCO etc.

Q23. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the

1. Banks Board Bureau
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Union Ministry of Finance
4. Management of concerned bank

Solution- (a)

Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is an autonomous body of the Government of India tasked to improve the governance of Public Sector Banks, recommend selection of chiefs of government owned banks and financial institutions and to help banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. The Chairman of PSB are appointed by the Banks Board Bureau (Indradanush Scheme).

Q24. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (b)

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before Appelate Tribunals for Electricity.

Q25. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (d)

VoLTE is commonly marketed as 4G technology and allows both voice and data technology.

Q26. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (c)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The paid maternity leave can be availed 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery. Before the amendment, it was 6 weeks.
Statement 2 is incorrect as women as allowed a minimum of 4 creche visits daily.
Statement 3 is correct as women with two children are entitled for only 12 weeks paid leave.

Q27. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?

1. Maintenance of law and order
2. Paying taxes
3. Registering property
4. Dealing with construction permits

Solution- (a)

World Banks Ease of Doing Business consist of the following sub indices - Starting a Business, Construction Permits, Getting Electricity, Registering Property, Getting Credit, Protecting Investors, Paying Taxes, Trading Across Borders, Enforcing Contracts, Resolving Insolvency.

Q28. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

1. The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
2. The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
3. The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
4. The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Solution- (c)

The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced the concept of EPR for the first time in India which made all the producers of electronic goods responsible for the waste production management.

Q29. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

1. transportation cost only
2. interest cost only
3. procurement incidentals and distribution cost
4. procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Solution- (c)

The Economic Cost of food grains includes MSP + Bonus Paid to farmers + Procurement Incidentals + Distribution Cost.

Q30. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

1. The proportion of literates in the population
2. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. The size of population in the working age group
4. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Solution- (d)

Social capital broadly refers to those factors of effectively functioning social groups that include such things as interpersonal relationships, a shared sense of identity, a shared understanding, shared norms, shared values, trust, cooperation, and reciprocity.

Q31. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

1. Integrated Rural Programme
2. Lead Bank Scheme
3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
4. National Skill Development Mission

Solution- (b)

Service area approach (SAA) is an improved version of area approach of Lead Bank Scheme. Under SAA plan each commercial bank / RRB branch in rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for planned and orderly development of rural and semi- urban areas.

Q32. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is correct- Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
Statement 2 is not correct- As per Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957, State Governments have been empowered to frame rules in respect of minor minerals for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith.
Statement 3 is correct- Section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments.

Q33. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Sovereign debt i.e debt by Government agencies is only 4.3% of GDP whereas by private players constitute 16.2% of GDP.
Statement 2 is incorrect: External debt is also held in INR, SDR, Japanese YEN and other currencies.

Q34. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

1. Advances
2. Deposits
3. Investments
4. Money at call and short notice

Solution- (b)

Deposits are considered as liabilities. So, correct option is b.

Q35. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (b)

Currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country's currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency.
A substantial amount of foreign exchange reserves can help to cushion against any risks of currency crisis.
The foreign current earnings of India's IT sector and remittances from abroad would lead more inflow of foreign currencies in the economy and boost the foreign exchange reserves. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Statement 2 is not correct as increasing the government expenditure is not related to change in foreign exchange reserves or any currency fluctuations.

Q36. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

1. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Solution- (c)

The Sarkaria Commission on Inter-state Relations has suggested that following additional criteria for the selecting a person for the office of Governor:

1. A politician belonging to the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed as Governor of a State Being run by some other party or by a combination of other parties.
2. He should be an eminent person in some walk of life,
3. He should be from outside the State and a detached figure not too intimately connected with the local politics of the State,
4. He should be a person who has not taken active part in politics, generally and particularly, in the recent past.

Q37. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

1. Certificate of Deposit
2. Commercial Paper
3. Promissory Note
4. Participatory Note

Solution- (d)

Participatory Notes is a system that lets unregistered overseas investors buy Indian shares without the need to register with the Indian regulatory body. These investments are also beneficial to India.

Q38. Consider the following statements

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (a)

Statement 2 is incorrect. People's participation is not mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs.

Q39. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 2 and 5

Solution- (a)

Review of the regulatory bodies in India is done by Parliamentary committees like Adhoc committees and Departmentally Related Standing Committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect as Finance Commission deals with devolution of taxes between Center and States
Statement 4 is incorrect as FSLRC deals with reforms of existing financial sector laws.

Q40. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Statement 3 is incorrect. The financial sector was included as an integral part from the Fourth Five Year plan

Q41. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and KondaReddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution- (c)

Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Statement 3 is wrong. There are currently 75 PVTGs notified in the country.

Q42. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

1. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
3. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Solution- (b)

Article 142 of Constitution of India Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery, etc ( 1 ) The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.

Q43. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is correct as Governor addresses the house before the first session of every year and the first session after the general election.
Statement 2 is correct because only Center has the powers to make rules/laws on residuary subjects.

Q44. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (c)

Statement 3 is incorrect. United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) includes a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners.

Q45. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution-

Statement 1 is incorrect. Recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, allows felling of bamboos grown in non-forest land.

Q46. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 25
4. Article 29

Solution-

According to constitution, right to marry the person of one's choice is belongs to right to dignity full life as per Menka Gandhi case.

Q47. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (c)

Statement 2 is incorrect. Intellectual Property Appellate Board is a quasi-judicial body was constituted in September 1958.

Q48. Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (c)

Statement 2 is incorrect. Standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources are laid down under Air Act and Water Act. These standards are approved and notified under Environment Protection Act 1986.

Q49. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
2. The Rules are applicable to riotified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
3. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Solution- (c)

Option a is incorrect because Waste generator has to segregate the waste into 3 categories under the rules - Biodegradables, Dry and Domestic Hazardous.
Option b is incorrect because the rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious and historical importance.
Option d is incorrect

Q50. Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (c)

Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is correct as per rule 3 (d) (ii) (b) (i) - no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary and badli workmen.

Q51. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is correct: As soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
Statement 2 is correct Cattle are important sources of both ammonia and methane.
Statement 3 is correct Poultry Industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
The poultry industry with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

Q52. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

1. Recently discovered uranium deposits
2. Tropical rain forests
3. Underground cave systems
4. Water reservoirs

Solution- (d)

Aliyar is a village located near Pollachi Town in Coimbatore district in Tamil Nadu, India. The famous Aliyar Reservoir is located in this village.
Kangsabati Dam is on the river Kangsabati.

Q53. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is Incorrect: As H- CNG reduces the carbon monoxide emissions but do not eliminate it.
Statement 4 is incorrect: H-CNG is more expensive than CNG.

Q54. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

1. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
2. Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
3. The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
4. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Solution- (b)

The ground becomes much cooler, causing the water vapour to condense. This condensed vapour is dew. On a cloudy night, the clouds send the heat back to the ground so the ground never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.

Q55. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (b)

It is the 42nd amendment that introduced an article placing the election of prime minister beyond judicial review.
Supreme court recently struck down 99th constitutional amendment act which deals with collegiums system.( National Judicial Appointment Commission).

Q56. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the LokSabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Solution- (c)

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Section 3 of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, says the presiding officer may admit or refuse to admit the motion after holding consultations with such persons as he thinks fit, and considering the material before him.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As the details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the judges is not defined in the constitution of India.
Statement 3 and 4 correct.

Q57. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. LalBahadurShastri
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Morarji Desai

Solution- (a)

The first amendment to the Indian constitution added the 9th Schedule to the constitution. It is introduced by the Nehru government on 10th may, 1951.

Q58. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Coal sector was nationalized by the Indira Government. The nationalization was done in two phases, the first with the coking coal mines in 1971-72 and then with the non-coking coal mines in 1973
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Allocation of coal blocks should be through competitive bidding.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: India is not self sufficient because India coal imports increased by 13.4 percent in the recent times.

Q59. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

India had the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1950, 1951, and 1953 exempting certain posts from being recorded as offices of profit. The said act has been amended Five times but the 'office of profit' is not well defined in the constitution.

Q60. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

1. Third Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Ninth Schedule
4. Twelfth Schedule

Solution- (b)

The Fifth Schedule deals with administration of scheduled areas where tribal co mmunities are in a majority. It prevents transfer of lands owned by tribal communities and protects their rights over lands.

Q61. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardiniadiversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

1. anti-malarial drug
2. blodiesel
3. pulp for paper industry
4. textilefibre

Solution- (d)

Recently, Girardiniadiversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya

Q62. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Chlorophyll a is a pigment found in all photosynthetic organisms, and is used as a measure of primary productivity in the oceans. As you mention it can be measured indirectly through satellite remote sensing and it's calculated using the raw data coming from the satellite sensors and specific algorithms to process that data.

Q63. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. M dhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

1. 2-3-1-4
2. 2-3-4-1
3. 3-2-4-1
4. 3-2-1-4

Solution- (c)

Chhattisgarh- 41
Madhya Pradesh-25.11
Maharasthra-16.47
Odisha-32.98

Q64. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Statement 1 and 2 are correct
Methane, which itself acts as a strong greenhouse gas, does not escape directly out of the sea as methane because it is transformed into CO2. Scientists therefore fear that large quantities of methane hydrate will melt there in the future, releasing increased amounts of CO2 into the ocean and the atmosphere. The oxygen content of the seawater will decrease accordingly.

Q65. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 'only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (d)

Crop residues / biomass burning are cheap and easiest method to dispose the leftover crop residues (wheat, rice, sugarcane etc.) after harvesting, for land clearing and pest control. Burning of crop residues is a common approach to eliminate waste after harvesting all over the world. Burning of these residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon (OC), methane (CH4), volatile organic compounds (VOC), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O3), and aerosols etc which affect the global atmospheric chemistry and climate.

Q66. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution- (b)

The Adriatic Sea is a body of water separating the Italian Peninsula from the Balkan peninsula. The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia. Black Sea is a large inland sea situated at the southeastern extremity of Europe. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.

Q67. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

1. China
2. India
3. Myanmar
4. Vietnam

Solution- (b)

India is the largest exporter of RICE in the world (30.1% of total rice exports), followed by Thailand.

Q68. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 5
4. 3 and 5

Solution- (a)

Milam glacier is a major glacier in the Kumaon Himalaya. The glacier is the source of the Goriganga River.
Zemu glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalayas. This glacier is the source of Teesta River.

Q69. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

1. pesticides in agriculture
2. preservatives in processed foods
3. fruit-ripening agents
4. moisturising agents in cosmetics

Solution- (a)

Carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos are banned pesticides which are extremely toxic.

Q70. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (c)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under RAMSAR convention it is not mandatory to conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

Q71. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

1. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
2. Tobacco, cotton and rubber.
3. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. Rubber, coffee and wheat

Solution- (b)

The phrase “New World crops” is usually used to describe crops, food and otherwise, that were native to the New World (mostly the Americas) before 1492 CE and not found anywhere else at that time. Many of these crops are now grown around the world and have often become an integral part of the cuisine of various cultures in the Old World. Among these 1. Tobacco, chocolate (cocoa), rubber and cotton are there. So, choices 1 and 2 are right. But coca came late in 1500 BCE. so, answer appropriately can be B.

Q72. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Asiatic lion - endangered species, located in Gir national park.
Double humped camel - (bactrian camel) - critically endangered - India, steppes of central Asia and east Asia. One horned rhinos - vulnerable , found both in Northeastern India and Nepal Source - National Geographic and WWF.

Q73. Consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Pandharpur -chandrabhaga river on banks.
Tiruchirapalli - on banks of Cauvery river and it separates it from Srirangam island
Hampi is on Tungabhadra river and not on malaprabha. So, 1 and 2 are right answers.

Q74. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

1. poverty rates vary from State to State
2. price levels vary from State to State
3. Gross State Product varies from State to State
4. quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Solution- (b)

The poverty line is defined as the minimum money required for maintaining a per capita caloric intake of 2,100 calories in an urban area and 2,400 calories in a rural area.
These estimates are done by analysing monthly per capita expenditure baskets of NSSO surveys.By this methodology, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh and Bihar have the highest proportion of BPL persons in the latest estimates.
As price levels vary from state to state, poverty also varies

Q75. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

1. Creating the artificial rains in some regions
2. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
3. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
4. Reducing the global warming

Solution- (d)

Thinning cirrus clouds would be achieved by injecting ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus clouds form, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing the cirrus optical depth. Less upper tropospheric water vapor and infrared radiation in the atmosphere would consequently cool the climate.
Cirrus cloud thinning is part of climate engineering to reduce anthropogenic global warming.

Q76. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

1. Extraction of rare earth elements
2. Natural gas extraction technologies
3. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
4. Waste-to-energy technologies

Solution- (d)

Pyrolysis is a process of chemically decomposing organic materials at elevated temperatures in the absence of oxygen. Plasma gasification is an extreme thermalprocess using plasma which converts organic matter into a syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide. It is used to produce energy from waste.

Q77. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

1. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and KalakadMundanthurai Tiger Reserve
2. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
3. Kaundinya, GundlaBrahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
4. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Solution- (a)

Agasthyamala bio sphere reserve consists of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurne Wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil. Recently inclusion of Kalakkadmundanthurai tiger reserve is approved.

Q78. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution- (d)

Most of the turtles are omnivores. But, Certain sea turtles are Herbivorous ex - Green sea turtles.
Green anacondas are viviparous. They give birth to young and nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac.
Manatees and dugongs are the only herbivores among marine mammals.

Q79. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (c)

Blue finned mahseer is found in cauvery.
In Chambal rivier, Ganges river dolphins are found. Not Irrawady dolphins. They are found in chalk lake, sunder ban national park, North button Island national par. Rusty spotted cat is found in eastern ghats of AP.
Answer is c. 1 and 3 are right.

Q80. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?

1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
2. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Solution- (a)

Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. They are used in cosmetics.
These micro plastics cause water pollution and dangerous for aquatic animals in fresh and ocean water. Countries like USA, UK, Sweden banned them recently.

Q81. Building 'KalyaanaMandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

1. Chalukya
2. Chandela
3. Rashtrakuta
4. Vijayanagara

Solution- (d)

Vijayanagara architecture has kalyanamandapas.

Q82. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

1. In local government. Amil was the revenue administrator of paragana ( district (shiq) is divided in to paraganas).
2. Iqta system was tax farming system. It is not an indigenous system. It came from buyid dynasty in central asia. Shamsaud-din lltutmish established the “Iqta' system” based on Mohammad Gori's ideas.
3. Mir Bakshi was the military officer during Mughal rule and not during sultanate.

Q83. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (d)

Saint Nimbaraka was probably lived in 12th or 13th century.Akbar belongs to 16 century, so, both are not contemporaries.
Kabir was influenced by ramananda. Kanir belongs to 14th century and Ahmad sirhindi to 16th century. Kabir is before sirhindi. So, no chance of influence.

Q84. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (b)

Champaransatyagraha (apr 10, 1917) is to liberate indentured labour.
Gandhiji declared unconditional support to British war effort. He also raised a Indian volunteer unit. So, second statement is wrong.
Only right answer left is 1 and 3.

Q85. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

Sir Tej Bahadhur Sapru was the president of Indian national liberal federation. INLF was founded by SurendranathBenerjee.
PC joshi was the general secretary of communist party of India appointed in 1935.
K C neogy was the member of constituent assembly of india and chairman of first finance commission of India.

Q86. With reference to MianTansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
2. Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
3. Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
4. Tansen invented many Ragas.

Solution- (a)

Tansen was a musician in Akbar court. He was part of navratnas and Akbar called him mean Tansen. He is known for his dhrupad compositions. He invented new ragas and influential figure in hindustani music. His songs are based on Gods and goddesses like ganesha, saraswati, so, 3rd statement is wrong.

Q87. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

1. Humayun
2. Akbar
3. Jahangir
4. Shah Jahan

Solution- (c)

Jahangir had the influence of European paintings which included portraits of kings and queens. Gulshan album was produced by FarrukhBegduringJahangirtime. During Akbar time Khamsa of Nizami - an illustrated manuscript was produced.

Q88. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

1. Manas National Park
2. Namdapha National Park
3. Neora Valley National Park
4. Valley of Flowers National Park

Solution- (d)

Namdapha national park is located in Arunachal Pradesh and has a wide elevation range (656 to 14,997 ft). The land cover changes with increasing elevation from tropical evergreen forest to temperate broadleaf and mixed forest.
The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.
Neora Valley, one of the last tracts of virgin wilderness in the country, sustains a unique ecosystem where tropical, sub-tropical, sub-temperate, and temperate vegetative system still harbours a wealth of flora and fauna.

Q89. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

1. Department of Science and Technology
2. Ministry of Employment
3. NITI Aayog
4. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Solution- (d)

Atal innovation mission is launched by NITI AAyog.

Q90. On 21st June, the Sun

1. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
2. does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
3. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
4. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Solution- (a)

During summer solstice, i.e, on June 21st, sun's rays is vertical over tropic of Cancer and at the same time we observe day in the north pole and night in the south pole. So, Sun doesn't set below the horizon at Antarctic circle.

Q91. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (d)

Zamindars also take part in revenue collecting duties and military duties. So option 1 is incorrect.
Land assignments to Jagirdars were not hereditary. So option 2 is incorrect.

Q92. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
3. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Solution- (a)

The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

Q93. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. World Economic Forum
4. World Bank

Solution- (c)

The Global Competitiveness Report was published by World Economic Forum.

Q94. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (a)

Statement 3 is incorrect because the revenues of India during 1813 are governed by the Board of Directors.

Q95. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution- (c)

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Swadeshi movement contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries. The National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organisation founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906.

Q96. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

All India Anti-Untouchability League, also known as HarijanSevakSangh is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India.
All India KisanSabha (All India Peasants Union, also known as the AkhilBharatiyaKisanSabha), was the name of the peasants front of the undivided Communist Party of India, an important peasant movement formed by SahajanandSaraswati in 1936.
Self-Respect movement was started by E V RamaswamyNaicker in 1921.

Q97. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

1. Chanhudaro
2. KotDiji
3. Sohgaura
4. Desalpur

Solution- (c)

The Sohgaura site was related to copper plate inscription written in Prakrit in the Brahmi script. It was discovered in Sohgaura, a village on the banks of the Rapti River, about 20km south-east of Gorakhpur, in the Gorakhpur District, Uttar Pradesh.

Q98. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'RanyoAshoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

1. Kanganahalli
2. Sanchi I
3. Shahbazgarhi
4. Sohgaura

Solution- (a)

An Inscription in Brahmi read “RanyoAshoka”( King Ashoka) was found at site Kanganahall, Sannati.

Q99. Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Solution- (d)

All statements are correct.

Q100. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
3. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Solution- (a)

In central and western India the villagers were also subjected to forced labour called vishti for serving the royal army and officials. Thus it was a source of income for the kingdom.

What is true about groups that have strong faultlines?

Which of the following statements is true about countries that are high in uncertainty avoidance?

Which culture is most likely to be categorized as one in which people define themselves as individuals and form looser ties with their groups?

How can organizations deal with the similarity attraction phenomenon?