Which of the following securities offerings is in compliance with Regulation s Quizlet

Intentional misrepresentation, concealment, or omission of the truth for the purpose of deception.
Ex: Intentional failure to provide a required disclosure is FRAUD.

Disclosures must be provided how and when?

In writing and prior to rendering any advice.

No one dealing in securities is exempt from:

Anti-fraud and common law deceit provisions exist at what levels?

All levels. Federal, state, and local.

It is unlawful to directly/indirectly transact business in a state as a B/D or agent unless registered under:

It is unlawful to employ any device to _________ or make ANY ___________.

Defraud another person; Untrue statement of material fact or omit them.

An agent who commits fraud may be:

  • Expelled permanently
  • Fined
  • Imprisoned
  • Suspended

Advisory activities: It is unlawful for any person to receive directly/indirectly any consideration for advising others in securities to:

  • Employ device or scheme to defraud
  • Act as a principal for their own account w/out proper disclosure (Written and given prior to completion and client gives consent)

- Exception: Principal disclosure requirement does not apply to transactions w/ customer of B/D if not actings an IA in relation to transaction

It is unlawful for any person to enter into, extend, or renew investment advisory contract unless stated in writing:

  • - Advisor will not be compensated on "performance fees"

- Rule

permits

compensation based on

total value averaged over a define period

.

  • -NO assignment of the contract by advisor w/out client consent

Which Act allows performance based fees and to who?

The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 allows for

Qualified Clients

ONLY.

  • Net worth of $2.1 million or
  • $1 million in assets under management

Transfer of rights and duties of a contract to another party.

What is a third party assignment?

Someone besides contract holder wants t transfer to another party, requiring contract owner consent.

If an IA is a partnership when is it considered an assignment?

  • Changing from sole proprietorship to partnership
  • When a majority member dies/withdraws

Note: NO assignment to members having only a minority interest

(Change in membership / Change in contract terms)
Unlawful for any person to enter into, extend, or renew investment advisory contract unless stated in writing:

  • If the advisory company is a partnership, must notify the client of any change in membership of the partnership
  • If terms of contract changed, client must sign a revised contract (changes include new IA address or phone number)

Advisory contracts do not need to contain:

Names, titles, addresses, and other personal info of all principles of the firm.

Examples (13) of fraudulent practices:

  • Using inside information
  • Failing to properly determine suitability
  • Commingling customer funds with agents funds
  • Deliberately ignoring customers instructions
  • Not recording transactions in client account
  • Not disclosing certain transactions involve unordinary commissions/costs
  • Customer written complaint not given to B/D
  • Soliciting/Selling unregistered non-exempt securities
  • Backdating order tickets
  • Excessive trading in clients discretionary account (churning)
  • Not disclosing compensation and/or conflicts of interest
  • Not disclosing preferential pricing/allocations and/or different pricing customer to customer
  • Knowingly permitting/assisting client in activities that violate the USA

Examples of conflicts of interest:

  • Principal transactions from firms account in customer recommended securities
  • Receipt of commissions/advisory fees on a transaction
  • Payment of fee/commission to 3rd party

Examples of client activities that violate the USA:

  • Allowing customer to "free-ride"
  • Allowing customer to cancel previously executed trades
  • Personally arranging credit for customers
  • Arranging stock to be purchased into firms error account - for no customer loss
  • Allowing any activities violating the anti-fraud provisions/statues of the USA

Examples (11) of intentional misrepresentation / omissions:

  1. Inaccurate market conditions
  2. Incorrect earning statements
  3. Inaccurate commission/mark-up/mark-down statement amounts
  4. Stating that securities are listed on an exchange when they are NOT
  5. Stating registration means regulator "approval"
  6. Client account status misrepresentation
  7. Guaranteeing performance of securities
  8. Representing that the administrator "approves" B/D/agent abilities
  9. Stating options are risk free
  10. selling shares of new issue w/out a prospectus
  11. Promising servies w/ no intent or qualification to do so

What is an administrator?

The designated state official who administers and and enforces securities regulations and the USA in a given state.

What can an administrator or a person appointed by an administrator do?

Can investigate (publicly or privately) any prospective violation of securities law within jurisdiction [Any time, any place - in or out of administrators state]

An administrator has authority over a person when:

  • Registered in the state
  • Transaction were executed in the state
  • The action(s) affects persons in the administrators state

The administrator may (at their discretion):

  • Publicly/privately investigate in or out of the state at any time
  • Require/permit persons to file a statement (under oath) concerning any investigative matters
  • Publish information concerning any violation of this act or rules

  1. Administer oaths
  2. Subpoena witnesses
  3. Take evidence
  4. Require documents/records that are relevant, even if confidential

An administrator can not directly:

Arrest, enjoin, or indict individuals, or confiscate property.

Failure to obey any order may be punished by the court as:

Administrators may issue/apply subpoenas at who's request?

Agency request (Such as FINRA) or an administrator of another state if activities occurred in their state.

Initial administrator actions generally take place in:

The state of violation or firm registration.
If actions taken, such as registration revocation, then other states could take similar action

The Admin may, if violations have occurred or are about to occur:

  1. Bar/deny/revoke/suspend registration - B/D or IA
  2. Issue cease and desist order - with or w/out prior hearing
  3. Bring action in the court system to enforce compliance - w/ the act or rule
  4. Disgorge commissions (charged by B/D) - distribute back to customers

Surety bonds exist so that if:

The registrant becomes insolvent, customers have some remedy available to them.

Any person who willfully violates ANY provision of the act, shall upon conviction be fined:

Up to $5,000 and/or imprisoned up to 3 years.

Indictment or information may not be returned more than:

5 years after alleged violation.

Agents can not be relieved of violation even if:

The customer agrees. Ex: Stealing money from a client but they are not pressing charges.

(Civil liabilities) No person can sue after:

3 years of the contract sale or investment advice, OR 2 years after discovery of facts of violation (whichever occurs first)

(Civil liabilities) A person offering/selling securities by untrue statements or omission of material fact is liable. The buyer can sue to:

Recover consideration paid plus interest and reasonable attorneys fees -less any income received. Ex-Careless RR places incorrect trade orders

Any person (IA, IAR, B/D, or agent) may avoid civil liability by offering a:

Refund of purchase price plus interest prior to the filing of a lawsuit.
Registrants claiming to be unaware of sale made due to false or misleading information - must provide proof.

If a client dies after filing suit what happens?

The suit is still valid to continue. Course of action "survives" the death of any person.

Administrators actions must be in the publics best interest and/or:

For the protection of investors. Must abide by and enforce the rules of the USA.

The Administrator may by rule adopt exemptions from registration requirement if exemptions are:

Consistent with public interest and proposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the act.

Administrators may revoke or deny certain exemptions without giving:

Prior notice to those who were previously exempt and to other regulators.

Administrators may cooperate with who to achieve maximum enforcement of policy and uniformity of all fillings.

Other administrators and/or SEC

Administrators may prescribe the form and content of financial statements. Statements must be prepared how?

In accordance to accepted accounting principles.

All rules and forms of the administrator shall be published and be amended when?

All required, kept records may be examined by the administrator when?

How are all administrative hearings held?

Public unless determined otherwise.

Orders may be appealed in court within:

Administrators may prohibit an IA from taking:

Custody of a clients funds/securities.

The burden of proving a rule exemption/exception is on:

In any disciplinary proceeding where denial/suspension/revocation of registration occurs, Admin is required to provide:

  • Appropriate prior notice
  • Hearing opportunity
  • Written findings of fact/conclusions

Procedures during administrative investigations and disciplinary proceedings:

The administrator may not institute a suspension or revocation proceeding:

  • Against a B/D based on lack of qualification of any person other than the B/D themselves or agent of a B/D
  • Against any IA based on lack of experience of any person other than the IA themselves or an IAR
  • Based solely on lack of experience if applicant/registrant is qualified by training or knowledge

The administrator may require filing of prospectus communications addressed to:

Prospective investors, clients, or potential clients of an IA, unless the security/transaction is exempted. Ex: federal covered security

For websites, IAs and B/D must keep what records?

Current site records and past revisions.

The administrator has no authority to require the filing of advertising of:

A federal covered security by the issuer.

Unit Investment Trusts must file:

Advertising and Sales Literature.

All records must be preserved for a period determined by:

State Admin or Federal law (5 years for IAs)

The admin has some discretion with record keeping requirements but must:

Remain within certain limitations of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934

If an IA is registered with the SEC, Admin does not have control over:

The book/records the IA firm is required to maintain.

Books/Records of B/D that must be maintained:

  • Order tickets
  • Ledgers of assets, liabilities, income/expense accounts
  • Blotters/other recorder of original entry including purchases and sales of securities

A B/D would not have to keep records of persons receiving:

Promotional or sales literature.

A B/D or IA may store records electronically provided certain criteria are met, including stored records:

  • Stored so they can't be altered
  • Readily accessible
  • Copied as needed
  • Duplicate records located in separate location

A record of the daily activities of each branch of a B/D.

B/Ds must retain "blotters" and other records of original entry for how long?

IAs are required to keep records of communications, including:

emails, involving advisory activity sent to clients.

IAs are NOT required to keep records of what kinds of emails?

ALL personal email of their employees and ALL emails sent to/from the firm not related to advisory activities.

In addition to maintenance of certain records, Administrators can require filing of:

  • Certain financial records and statements (not ALL)
  • Amendments to firms registration, including filing of material and non-material changes.

Due to difference in business function, B/Ds and IA firms can and normally do have different ________ requirements under both _____ and __________.

Record-keeping; SEC; Administrative regulations

Under the Uniform Securities Act, an Administrator of a state may require the filing of communications addressed or intended for distribution to prospective investors for all of the following EXCEPT?
[A] Prospectus for a new issue [B] Advertisement about specific securities [C] The offering of an exempt security [D] Sales literature about specific securities

Answer: CUnder the Uniform Securities Act, the Administrator may, by rule or order, require the filing of any prospectus, pamphlet, circular, form letter, advertisement, or other communication addressed or intended for distribution to prospective investors, including clients or prospective clients of an investment advisor, UNLESS THE SECURITY OR TRANSACTION IS EXEMPTED.

Which of the following is excluded from the anti-fraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
[A] Exempt securities [B] Exempt transactions [C] Federally covered securities [D] No securities or transactions are excluded from the anti-fraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act.

Answer: DThe anti-fraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act apply to all securities and transactions in securities, regardless of exemption or federal coverage.

Which of the following would be considered approved acts of an agent?
I.   Backdating confirmations one day. II.   Representing that a bond yields 6% when it actually yields 5%. III.   Paying to an investment advisor a percentage of the commissions generated in a client's account without disclosing this to the client. IV.   Guaranteeing a customer against loss and agreeing to split all profits when the customer provides all of the investment funds.
[A] I and II [B] III and IV [C] I, II and IV [D] None of the above

Answer: DAll choices offered represent acts which would be considered violations of the Uniform Securities Act.

Under the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is NOT required to be in writing in an advisory contract?
[A] The names and titles of all principals in the advisory firm [B] That the advisor's compensation will not be based on capital gains [C] That no assignment of rights or ownership of the contract will be made without the client's consent [D] That if the firm is a partnership, clients will be notified of any change in the partnership within a reasonable time after the change

Answer: AThe names and titles of all the principals of the advisory firm would not be needed in an advisory contact, but the information in 'B', 'C', and 'D' would be required.

The Administrator is empowered to revoke the registration of an investment advisor if:
I.   The investment advisor has ceased operating as a business in the State. II.   The investment advisor has been judged to be mentally incompetent. III.   The investment advisor has relocated the advisory firm and has not notified the Administrator of the new business location.
[A] I only [B] III only [C] I and II [D] I, II, III

Answer: DAn Administrator has the power to revoke an Investment Advisor's registration if it is deemed in the best interest of the public. All three items listed are specifically listed as reasons why a registration could be revoked according to the Uniform Securities Act.

An Agent of a Broker-dealer has sold a common stock to a client by use of false information. The Agent did not know that such information was false when it was disseminated to the client. Based on these circumstances which of the following would be correct?
[A] In order to resolve the issue the Agent need only contact the client and tell them the true facts. [B] The agent has to sustain the burden of proof that the agent did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known of the existence of the untruth. [C] Since the Agent did not know about the false information, the Agent has no burden of proof that must be sustained. [D] The Agent will automatically be required to go before the court and may end up with a prison sentence.

Answer: BUnder Section 410 of the Uniform Securities Act, a person selling securities has a defense to liability if the person can sustain the burden of proof that they did not know of the untrue statement and could not have known of the untrue statement in the exercise of reasonable care.

Frank works at ABC Advisory and Broker/Dealer Services. The firm provides investment advice as well as broker/dealer services to clients. Frank recommends the purchase of 200 shares of XYZ common stock to one of his advisory clients. The client also uses ABC for their broker/dealer services. ABC has an inventory of XYZ, so the sale is facilitated in a principal capacity. Frank gets a mark-up on the sale in addition to his advisory fees for assets under management. Which of the following is TRUE of this scenario according to the Uniform Securities Act?
[A] Frank is violating the Uniform Securities Act by performing this trade, regardless of the circumstances. [B] Frank is violating the Uniform Securities Act, but only because he works for a firm that provides both advisory and broker/dealer services. [C] Frank would be violating the Uniform Securities Act and could be civilly liable if he failed to fully disclose his compensation related to advice as well as broker/dealer services, as well as if he failed to disclose that the firm was acting in a principal capacity. [D] Frank can give the recommendation, charge the mark-up, and not provide disclosure under the rules of the Uniform Securities Act.

Answer: CIf a client will be charged for advice as well as commissions or a mark-up/mark-down, this must be fully disclosed to the client. As well, the client must be informed via disclosure of scenarios where the firm is acting in a principal capacity (selling into/out of their own account). Here, Frank can perform the trade as listed if proper disclosure is given related to charging both a fee and a mark-up, as well as the firm acting in a principal capacity. If such disclosures are not offered, Frank would be acting in violation of the Uniform Securities Act and could be civilly liable.

Violations of the Uniform Securities Act may result in
I.   Having a receiver appointed over an adviser's assets. II.   Limitations on the adviser's business activities. III.   A $5,000 fine.
[A] I only [B] II and III only [C] II only [D] I, II, III

Answer: DAccording to the Uniform Securities Act, violations may result in but are not limited to: having a receiver appointed over an advisers' assets, limitations on business activities, and/or a $5000.00 fine.

According to Uniform Securities Act Regulations, which of the following statements are correct regarding “advertising”?
I.   Websites are considered to be a form of advertising and records must be kept in relation to previous versions of websites as well as material revisions to websites. II.   Websites are not considered to be a form of advertising and records are not required to be maintained. III.   Electronic records are permitted on advertising, however certain criteria regarding locations, access, and inability to alter must be met. IV.   Electronic records are permitted without restriction.
[A] I and III only [B] I and IV only [C] II and III only [D] II and IV only

Answer: AAccording to the Uniform Securities Act, websites are considered to be a form of advertising. Because of this, copies of the “advertising” must be maintained. For this reason, records related to the current version of a website, as well as previous versions and revisions to the site, must be maintained by the firm. Such records are permitted to be in electronic form, but must adhere to certain rules. The records may not be in a form that can be altered. As well, the records must be readily accessible, must be in a format that can be copied as needed, and must be stored in two separate locations.

Which of the following are unlawful?
I.   A sale where there is a guarantee against risk or loss. II.   Excessive trading in a customer's discretionary account. III.   Sales where unreasonable delays are created in delivering securities to customers. IV.   An offer where an agent represented that the security will be listed, without a basis in fact.
[A] I and II [B] III and IV [C] I, III and IV [D] All

Answer: DAll choices offered would be considered unlawful practices under the Uniform Securities Act.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following are unlawful with an offer, sale, or purchase of a security?
I.   making an untrue statement of material fact. II.   failing to state a fact necessary to avoid misleading another party. III.   engaging in a business practice which causes customers to be deceived.
[A] III [B] I, II [C] I, III [D] I, II, III

Answer: DAll choices are correct with regard to unlawful acts in connection with an offer, offer for sale, or purchase of a security.

If an investment adviser has a principal place of business in a given state, that state's Administrator may impose what requirements according to the Uniform Securities Act?
I.   It may require the IA to file certain financial statements. II.   It may require the IA to file amendments to existing registrations applications. III.   It may require the IA to file its sales literature. IV.   It may require the IA to maintain certain records.
[A] I and II only [B] II and IV only [C] I, III, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV

Answer: DAdministrators may require that the IA file all of the above items as well as maintain certain records.

When conducting an investigation pursuant to Uniform Securities Act regulations, the Administrator of a state has authority to perform which of the following?
I.   The Administrator can subpoena any witnesses involved. II.   The Administrator can obtain and collect evidence. III.   The Administrator can administer oaths that are applicable.
[A] II only [B] I and II only [C] II and III only [D] I, II, and III

Answer: DThe Uniform Securities Act give the Administrator the authority to perform all of the functions listed above including the ability to subpoena witnesses, collect evidence, and administer oaths.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is NOT required to be in writing in an advisory contract?
[A] The names and titles of all principals on the advisory firm. [B] That the adviser's compensation will not be based on capital gains (except as permitted under an exemptive rule or order of the Administrator). [C] That no assignment of rights or ownership of the contract will be made without the client's consent. [D] That if the firm is a partnership, clients will be notified of any change in the partnership within a reasonable time after the change.

Answer: AAdvisory contracts are not required to list the names and titles of all principals on the advisory firm. However, the contract must include in writing the following information: that the advisor will not be compensated on the basis of a share of capital gains or capital appreciation of funds, that no assignment of the contract may be made by the advisor without the consent of the client and that if the advisory company is a partnership it shall notify the client of any change in the membership of the partnership.

The antifraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act apply to which of the circumstances below:
I.   The sale of exempt securities by a registered broker-dealer. II.   A broker-dealer makes an offer on a security with no sale resulting. III.   Securities are sold by a non-registered person who is not required to be registered under the Uniform Securities Act.
[A] I [B] I and II [C] II and III [D] I, II, and III

Answer: DThe antifraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act apply to all offers and sales of securities, whether the person selling them is exempt from the Act or not.

If an intentional omission of a fact is made in a securities transaction, it would constitute fraud:
[A] only when the information is disseminated to less than 25 persons. [B] if a reasonable person would attach decision-making importance to the omitted information. [C] only when the security offered is a new issue. [D] only if the information was known to be factual beyond a reasonable doubt.

Answer: BFraud would have occurred if the information was needed in making a decision as to whether or not the investment was appropriate for the client.

It is a violation of the Act for an agent to do which of the following?
I.   Backdate any records. II.   Misrepresent a return on a security. III.   Pay commissions to an investment advisor without disclosing this to the customer. IV.   Guarantee a customer against loss on a purchase.
[A] I, II and III [B] II, III and IV [C] I, III and IV [D] I, II, III and IV

Answer: DAll choices represent activities which would be a violation of Uniform Securities Act.

Which of the following are true regarding investigations conducted by the Administrator under the Uniform Securities Act?
I.   Information regarding violations must be kept confidential. II.   Investigations may be conducted across state lines. III.   The Administrator may obtain a court order to have a receiver appointed over a violator's assets.
[A] I and II only [B] I and III only [C] II and III only [D] I, II, and III

Answer: CChoices II and III are correct. Choice I is incorrect because information regarding violations may be made public by the administrator.

All of the following would NOT be cause for civil liability except?
[A] Properly supervising employees subject to civil liability actions [B] Advising a client that the investment advisory firm will act as principal in the sale or offer of a security to a client [C] Proper disclosure of all material facts to a client about a security being offered to the client [D] Offering to settle a lawsuit after it was filed by offering to pay the purchase price plus interest to the client

Answer: DAll choices offered represent things that an IA firm is supposed to do except choice settling the lawsuit after it has been filed. This choice is incorrect because such an offer is required to be made PRIOR to the customer filing the lawsuit.

Which of the following billing methods would be permissible for an IA under the Uniform Securities Act?
I.   An IA charges a client a $500 fee for initial set-up of their account, review of their information, and a start-up financial plan including several recommendations. II.   An IA charges a client a set fee of $125 per month for recommendations and management of the client’s portfolio. III.   An IA charges a client a set percentage of 25% of all profits achieved in the account, billed on a monthly basis, and does not charge the client if losses were incurred over the billing cycle. IV.   An IA charges a client a set percentage of 1.5% of assets under management at the firm, billed on a monthly basis.
[A] I and III only [B] I and IV only [C] I, II, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV

Answer: CUnder the Uniform Securities Act, investment advisors are permitted to collect fees for their services. These fees must be fixed or must be based on the percentage of assets under management. Fees cannot be tied to a certain percentage of profits, which would constitute a performance-based fee. In this question, the set fee for start-up, the set monthly fee for recommendations, and the 1.5% of assets under management would all be acceptable. The 25% of profits would not be acceptable and would constitute a performance-based fee.

Anyone who violates any provision of the Uniform Securities Act may be subject to which of the following?
I.   liability to the purchase for the amount paid plus interest II.   a fine of $10,000 III.   imprisonment for not more than three years
[A] I only [B] I, III [C] II, III [D] I, II, III

Answer: BII is incorrect because the fine under the Uniform Securities Act is $5,000. I and III are correct as stated.

Frank is not registered in any capacity under the Uniform Securities Act. Is it possible for Frank to violate the rules of the Uniform Securities Act, despite his not being registered?
I.   Yes, Frank can violate the Uniform Securities Act by acting in a capacity which requires registration without properly registering, thus violating the Act. II.   No, Frank cannot violate the Uniform Securities Act, even if he acts in a capacity which requires registration without properly registering. III.   Yes, Frank can make untrue statements of material fact about securities, he can violate the anti-fraud provisions, and he can violate insider trading laws, all of which would be violations under the Uniform Securities Act. IV.   No, any untrue statements of material fact, violations of anti-fraud provisions, and/or violations of insider trading laws would not be violations of the Uniform Securities Act, because Frank is not registered in any capacity.
[A] I and III only [B] I and IV only [C] II and III only [D] II and IV only

Answer: AAn individual does not need to be registered in any capacity in order to violate the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act. Violations can come from many different areas of the Act. Those listed are just a small sample, but include acting in a capacity which requires registration without properly registering, making untrue statements of material fact about securities, violation of anti-fraud provisions, and violation of insider trading laws. Frank can be prosecuted for any of these violations, despite the fact that he is not registered under the Uniform Securities Act.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, whenever it appears that someone has violated the act, the administrator may:
I.   issue a cease and desist order after conducting a hearing on the matter. II.   issue a cease and desist order before conducting a hearing on the matter. III.   seek a court order requiring the violator to make restitution to clients.
[A] I, II [B] I, III [C] II, III [D] I, II, III

Answer: DThe Administrator of a state has the power to do any or all three of the choices offered if a violation of the Uniform Securities Act has occurred in their state.

Which of the following actions, according to the USA, must be taken by a State's Administrator prior to the revocation of an investment adviser's registration?
[A] The Administrator must consult with a disciplinary panel which agrees with the Administrator and recommends the revocation of registration. [B] The Administrator must first warn the IA, then place the IA on a probationary period, and finally can revoke the IAs registration if the violations by the IA continue. [C] The Administrator must provide appropriate prior notice to the IA, after which the IA is entitled to the opportunity of a hearing, and finally the IA must be allowed to view the written conclusions of the laws and written findings of the Administrator. [D] The Administrator must take the IA to court of law, during which evidence must be presented and the IA must be allowed to make a case for him or herself.

Answer: C The administrator may revoke an IA's registration but must provide appropriate notice, opportunity for a hearing, and written facts and conclusions by law.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, investment advisory fees may be based on a percentage of all of the following EXCEPT:
[A] Client's funds deposited with the IA. [B] Total value of the client's managed accounts at a specified point in time. [C] Average total value of the client's managed account over a period of time. [D] Appreciation in the value of the client's managed account over a period of time.

Answer: D As a general rule, performance-based fees are prohibited. Therefore, fees based on appreciation or capital gains are prohibited.

Under which of the following circumstances may an investment adviser (IA) act as a principal and sell a security to a client according to the Uniform Securities Act?
[A] Only when a security has been listed on a national exchange [B] The customer's monthly statement shows the sale as a principal transaction [C] The price is fair and reasonably related to the current market price [D] Only after written disclosure of the IA's status is provided and the client consents

Answer: D When an Investment Advisor Acts as principal, it must be disclosed to the client in writing before completion of the transaction.

Which of the following situations could place an investment adviser in a position where the IA could be held liable to a client in a civil case?
I.   Recommending investments that are suitable for the client, but that lose money II.   Failing to register and failing to qualify for exemption from registration III.   Claiming that because a security is "registered," that the Administrator has approved it as a good investment
[A] I and II only [B] I and III only [C] II and III only [D] I, II, and III

Answer: C A suitable investment may lose money without any fault on the part of the IA. The other two examples are blatant violations of the USA.

The Uniform Securities Act provides that which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to post registration provisions for registered IA's whose principal place of business is in a given state?
I.   The IA is responsible for scheduling the annual state examination of books and records with the Administrator. II.   The filing of financial statements with the state may be a requirement. III.   By rule or order, the IA must maintain certain records per the Administrator. IV.   If the Form ADV becomes materially inaccurate, it is the IA's responsibility to update the form.
[A] I and IV only [B] I, III, and IV only [C] II, III, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV

Answer: C All records required to be kept may be examined by the Administrator at any time within or outside of the state. IAs do not schedule their own annual examinations!

Does the fact that an Investment Advisor is registered in a state mean that the Investment Advisor is qualified?
[A] Yes, registration means that the Investment Advisor is qualified as an IA. [B] Yes, registration means that the Investment Advisor has all of the qualifications necessary to provide clients with investment advice. [C] No, registration does not mean that the Investment Advisor is qualified to provide investment advice to clients. [D] No, registration requirements are for the sole purpose of providing fee income to the state in which the IA will register.

Answer: C Registration as an IA, B/D. or Agent does NOT mean that the firm or person is approved or qualified according to the Uniform Securities Act.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, all the following must be included in a written advisory contract except:
[A] that the investment advisor will not receive compensation based on the profit or loss in the account [B] that the investment advisor has been qualified by examination, experience or training to be an investment advisor [C] that the investment advisor will not assign the contract without the client's consent [D] that the investment advisor of a partnership will notify the client within a reasonable period of time of any change in the membership of the partnership

Answer: B All choices except "B" are true statements regarding an investment advisory contract. "B" is incorrect because investment advisory contracts would not include registration information.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to an Administrator's authority under the Uniform Securities Act to examine the books and records of a registrant?
[A] They may be examined with prior notice only. [B] They may be examined at anytime in or out of the state. [C] They may be examined at anytime, but only in the state. [D] They may not be examined without a court order.

Answer: B The state's administration is allowed to examine books and records at anytime inside or outside of the state.

Which of the following is FALSE when discussing Administrative proceedings according to Uniform Securities Act regulations?
[A] A summary order to deny certain exemptions may be made by the Administrator. [B] If the Administrator issues a denial order it is final and binding and may not be appealed. [C] If an entity believes that it qualifies for an exemption, the burden of proving the qualification for an exemption lies on the entity claiming it. [D] Administrators are not permitted to engage in retroactive enforcement of orders and revocations.

B. Orders by an Administrator may be appealed in court within 60 days after the order is issued, therefore choice "B" is not true. All other choices represent true statements.

Under the Uniform Securities Act (USA), an agent of a broker-dealer who violates the USA may be subject to which of the following consequences?
I.   The agent may face an injunction II.   The agent may face civil liabilities III.   The agent may face criminal penalties IV   The agent may face revocation of registration
[A] I and III only [B] II and IV only [C] I, II, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV

D.An agent of a broker-dealer could be subject to "All" choices offered if violations occur.

The burden of proving an exemption or exception to a definition under the Uniform Securities Act is placed on:
[A] The person claiming the exemption or exception [B] The state securities Administrator [C] The Securities Exchange Commission [D] The Attorney General

A. In any proceeding under the Uniform Securities Act, the burden of proving an exemption or an exception from a definition is placed on the person claiming it.

According to the USA, an agent has willfully violated the antifraud provisions of the USA if he or she intentionally performs which of the following acts?
I.   The agent knowingly sells non-exempt new issues of securities and does not deliver a prospectus to each purchasing client. II.   The agent tells his or her clients when selling a bond issue, that the bond issue yields 7.5% when in reality, it yields 0.75%. III.   The agent misleads his or her clients, telling them that the revenue bonds from a nearby toll road are actually general obligation tax bonds backed by the county. IV.   The agent ensures clients that they will receive a minimum of a 17.5% annualized return on their investments.
[A] I and II only [B] I, III and IV only [C] II, III and IV only [D] I, II, III and IV

D. A "willful" act is an intentional, deliberate act. All of these acts are fraudulent and/or deceptive practices.

The regulations for the storage of e-mail communications for investment advisors under the Uniform Securities Act requires:
[A] the maintenance of printed emails only. [B] IAs to maintain only certain communications that relate to the receipt or disbursement of funds or securities, the placement or execution of securities trades, and any investment advice. [C] maintenance of personal and non-personal email. [D] maintenance of all email communications.

B. The rules require the maintenance of only communications relating to investment advice, receipt, or disbursement of securities, funds, and records of securities trades.

Which of the following would be grounds for denial, revocation, or suspension of the registration of a broker-dealer?
[A] The discovery that the broker-dealer failed to supervise its agents. [B] The discovery that a director of the firm had a pending legal issue. [C] A minor technical infraction was discovered by an outside law firm. [D] A minor sale infraction was discovered by 25 clients of the broker-dealer.

A. Minor rule infractions are not grounds for denial, revocation, or suspension of registration.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, every investment advisor shall make and keep such accounts, correspondence, memoranda, papers, books, and other records:
[A] for a period of time not to exceed 1 year. [B] for a period of time no less than 3 years. [C] as the Administrator of the state where the IA is located prescribes by rule or order or by federal law. [D] as prescribed by the SEC only.

C. In the Uniform Securities Act, Section 203, records are to be made and kept as prescribed by the Administrator of the state where the IA's principal place of business is located, except for where federal law takes precedence.

Bonds issued by the US Government or municipalities within the US are exempt from registration. Concerning these securities, all of the following would be TRUE, EXCEPT:
[A] The securities are free from the filing of advertising and sales literature. [B] Those effecting transactions for the securities in the secondary market still must be registered in order to do so. [C] Those providing advice regarding the securities trading in the secondary market still must be registered in order to provide this advice. [D] The Administrator is permitted, by rule or order, to require registration as well as filing of advertising from these issuers if the Administrator finds it is in the public’s best interest.

D. The Administrator has the ability to revoke certain exemptions by rule or order. However, the Administrator does NOT have the ability to deny or revoke exemptions related to US Government securities and Municipal securities, which are exempt.

The Administrator of a state receives information from a reliable source pertaining to questionable activities on the part of a federal covered adviser. It seems that instead of taking the necessary actions when receiving customer complaints, the adviser burns the documents in his office fire place, sometimes in front of other employees. With his authority, the Administrator can
[A] conduct an investigation of the adviser. [B] impose record-keeping rules on the adviser. [C] require the adviser to register in the state. [D] issue an injunction prohibiting further behavior of this kind.

A. Under the USA, an Administrator has the authority and power to conduct investigations and issue stop orders . Although a federal covered adviser is exempt from the registration and record-keeping requirements of the Act, they are not exempt from the anti-fraud provisions of the Act. The Administrator may seek an injunction via the judicial system (court system), but the Administrator cannot issue an injunction directly.

Which of the following statements are true with regards to the responsibilities of a registered investment adviser under the USA?
I.   The filing of financial reports with the state may be required of the IA. II.   On an annual basis, the RIA must schedule an examination of its books by the Administrator. III.   It must maintain designated records for a time period that the Administrator may prescribe. IV.   When inaccuracies arise in the registration statement, the registration statement must be amended.
[A] I and II only [B] III and IV only [C] I, III, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV only

C. All of the statements are true with regard to the responsibilities of an Investment Adviser except II. II is not correct because an annual examination of books and records would have to unannounced and done by an independent public accountant.

Which of the following must be disclosed in writing to clients prior to an IA giving financial advice to a client?
[A] The IA must disclose the schedule of commissions charged for different investments. [B] The IA must disclose that the IA receives commissions for executing trades and that the IA also charges an advisory fee. [C] The IA must disclose the full criminal record of all employees. [D] The IA must disclose the minimum rate of return the IA will guarantee.

B. Disclosure related to charging fees as well as commissions must be made in the advisory contract prior to giving a client financial advice. Each of the other items listed does not need to be disclosed or does not need to be disclosed prior to giving financial advice.

According to the USA, it is acceptable for an IA's compensation to be based on which of the following?
[A] A share of the client's portfolio's capital gains [B] Any mutually agreed upon terms that are in writing [C] A portion of the client's net capital gains as long as net capital losses have been subtracted [D] A percentage of the managed fund's average total value over a specified period of time

D. Performance fees are generally prohibited under the USA.

You work for XYZ Advisors which is an investment advisory firm. The firm is registered in Maine, New Hampshire, and Vermont. Printed on the firm's brochures, business cards, and letterhead is the following statement: "XYZ Advisors is a fee-only advisor. Registration procedures, review, and approval has been performed in the state of Maine." Which of the following is the BEST description as to why this statement is unacceptable?
[A] The firm is required to mention registration in all states, including Maine, New Hampshire, and Vermont, not just Maine. [B] The firm has made the implication that Maine has, in some way, approved of the advisory firm. [C] The firm has failed to make full disclosure related to the manner in which they are compensated. [D] The firm must charge and receive compensation in other forms aside from fees only.

B. In no way is it acceptable for the firm to discuss completion of the registration procedures as "approval" by the state in which the firm is registered. The firm is not required to list all states in which it is registered on such forms. Disclosure as a fee-only advisor is acceptable if that is the case and other forms of compensation need not be disclosed or charged if the firm does not use other forms of compensation.

What consequences might befall a broker-dealer firm that violates the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act? I.   Criminal prosecution II.   Civil law suits III.   Registration suspension, denial, or revocation IV.   Confiscation and repayment of fees and/or commissions resulting from such violations.
[A] I and III only [B] II and IV only [C] II, III, and IV only [D] I, II, III, and IV

D. When a violation of the Uniform Securities Act has taken place, the broker-dealer may be subject to criminal and civil penalties. The broker-dealer may also have their registration suspended or revoked. If the broker-dealer has received fees and/or commissions from unethical practices that violate the Act, these fees and/or commissions can be confiscated and repaid to those who paid them (disgorged).

In the event that an apparent violation of the Uniform Securities Act has taken place, which of the following is NOT included in the list of possible actions that may be taken by the Administrator?
[A] Without providing for a hearing, the Administrator can immediately revoke the suspected violator's registration. [B] Without providing prior notice, the Administrator can begin investigating the situation and registrant. [C] Without providing prior notice, the Administrator can force the registrant to halt the activities in violation by issuing a cease and desist order related to the violations. [D] Without providing prior notice, the Administrator can start a civil suit against the registrant which alleges wrongdoing and forces compliance with the regulations in place.

A. An Administrator is not permitted to revoke a registration without providing appropriate prior notice, the opportunity for a hearing, and written findings, facts, and conclusions related to the alleged violation.

You are a new agent at Broker/Dealer XYZ. You have completed the registration process with State A. Which of the following statements are you permitted to say to customers and prospective customers?
[A] "The Administrator of the State has verified my competence and I am State-certified." [B] "I am registered and therefore the Administrator recommends using my services." [C] "I have been authorized to do business in the State according to registration procedures and the State Administrator." [D] "The Administrator of the State has verified that my employing firm, as well as myself, perform our business functions in an ethical manner."

C. Statements implying approval, verification, or recommendation may NOT be made. The only acceptable statement in this scenario would be that of the agent being authorized to do business in the State according to registration procedures and the State Administrator. All of the other statements imply too much.

According to the criminal penalties of the Uniform Securities Act, which two of the following apply if a person knowingly makes a misleading filing with the administrator? That person may be:
I.   fined not more than $5,000 II.   imprisoned not more than five years III.   fined not more than $3,000 IV.   imprisoned for no more than three years
[A] I, II [B] II, III [C] I, IV [D] III, IV

C. Under the Uniform Securities Act, penalties are limited to a fine of $5000, imprisonment of 3 years, or a combination of both.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, every investment advisory contract must be in writing and must include
[A] that assignment of the contract is prohibited [B] that the IA's liability is limited [C] that the IA's compensation is based on a share of capital gains [D] the specific time period for which services are contracted

D. Assignment of the contract is permitted with the written consent of the client. The IA may not limit its liability or as a general rule share in the capital gains of the accounts of clients.

Which of the following statements that relate to Investment Advisers (IA's) is FALSE according to the Uniform Securities Act?
[A] The registration of IARs is the responsibility of the IA. [B] SEC registration of an IA exempts the IA from any state antifraud provisions. [C] The state in which the IA's main place of business is located may have record-keeping requirements which the IA may be required to follow. [D] It may be a requirement that advertisements for the IA be filed with the Administrator of the state.

B. Nobody is exempt from state antifraud provisions!

Stella has made a business of advising her clients as to the value of securities that are listed on the New York Stock Exchange. She does not perform any transactions for her clients. Even though she does not effect transactions for her clients, she must still comply with which of the following provisions of the Uniform Securities Act? I.   The antifraud provisions II.   Provisions related to broker-dealer registration III.   Provisions related to investment adviser registration [A] I only [B] III only [C] I and II [D] I and III

D. An investment advisor (IA) that only gives advice about listed securities and does not execute or effect any transactions would have to be registered as an investment adviser (IA) but would not have to be registered as a broker-dealer.

An IA may be liable for civil damages to a client if:
I.   The IA fails to disclose a material fact in soliciting the clients II.   The IA fails to disclose that the IA will sell a recommended security from its own account. III.   The IA fails to reasonably supervise an employee who becomes civilly liable to clients for negligent investment advice. [A] I and II only [B] I and III only [C] II and III only [D] I, II, and III

D. Failure to disclose a material fact is fraud. An IA is liable for the negligence of its employees.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, an Administrator may inspect required books and records:
[A] Any time the Administrator deems it necessary [B] When the Administrator suspects fraudulent activity [C] Annually at the time of renewal of registration [D] Upon receipt of a written complaint against the registrant

A. State Administrators can examine books and records of a registrant registered in their state at any time within or outside of the state without prior notification.

What provisions, set forth by the Uniform Securities Act, apply to both federal covered advisers and investment advisers of the same state?
[A] The state's registration provisions [B] The record and book-keeping requirements [C] The state's minimum financial requirements [D] The anti-fraud provisions

D. All firms doing business in a state are subject to the anti-fraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act.

Which of the following actions could result in civil liability according to the Uniform Securities Act?
I.   The failure to disclose to a client that the advisor will act as a principal for the advisor's own account in a sale of a recommended security II.   The failure to state a material fact III.   The failure to reasonably supervise an employee
[A] I and II [B] II and III [C] I and III [D] I, II, III

D. All choices are correct with regard to civil liabilities according the Uniform Securities Act.

An Administrator of a state may deny an application by a broker-dealer for registration, according to the Uniform Securities Act, if the broker-dealer applicant
[A] has no experience in the securities industry. [B] has been suspended by the London Stock Exchange. [C] has been convicted of a misdemeanor involving a life insurance policy. [D] has been investigated by an Administrator in another state for securities law violations.

B. Each standing alone, answers A, C, and D are not sufficient grounds for Administrators to deny applications. However, being suspended by another stock exchange is sufficient grounds for an Administrator to deny registration.

When an agent of a broker/dealer sells securities the USA states:
[A] that the security must be listed on a national securities exchange [B] that the agent must be registered with the SEC [C] that the security must be an exempt, federally-covered, or registered. [D] that the security must be listed on NASDAQ

C. When an agent of a broker/dealer sells securities the securities must be registered, exempt, or is a federal-covered security.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, broker-dealers must renew their registration how often?

Registration must be renewed annually.

Coordination is used to register securities with a state and an agent is talking to a prospective buyer about these securities. The Uniform Securities Act permits which of the following statements regarding this situation?
[A] The agent may state that by accepting the registration by coordination, the Administrator stands behind the issue of securities. [B] The agent may state that no assessment or judgment has been made by the Administrator with regards to the viability of the company or security. [C] The agent may state that by accepting the registration by coordination, the Administrator believes that all aspects of the company and security are in order. [D] The agent may state that there were no false or inaccurate statements included in the registration, otherwise the Administrator would have denied registration.

B. Administrators, SROs, and government agencies such as the SEC will NEVER "pass on", "endorse", "stand by", or "guarantee" the viability of a company or security. It is also unacceptable for an agent to state that the Administrator has found that all statements and information contained in a registration statement is "true" or is "accurate" or for the agent to state that a registration statement would not have been approved if there were any inaccuracies.

Renewal registration fees are NOT required of which of the following registered applicants?
[A] A broker-dealer who is filing for a successor [B] Investment adviser representatives (IARs) [C] Agents of a broker-dealer [D] Agents of an issuer.

A. A broker/dealer filing for a successor would apply the unused portion of the existing registration to the new (successor) firm.

A broker/dealer is registered in all 50 states but only has offices located in State A. The Administrator in State B has notified the BD that he is going to audit the BD's books and records. Does the Administrator in State B have authority to audit the books?
[A] Yes, because the BD is registered in State B [B] Yes, because the Administrator has authority over all BDs [C] No, because the BD has no offices in the state [D] No, because the books and records are located in State A

A. If a BD is doing business in a state and is registered in the state, the Administrator of that state may examine the books and records at any time in or out of the state, even if the broker/dealer does not have an office in that state.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, investment adviser's (IA's) applications for registration may be denied by a state Administrator for any of the following reasons EXCEPT:
[A] The IA willingly violated several provisions of the Act. [B] The IA has been convicted of a misdemeanor, unrelated to securities, in the last 10 years. [C] The IA has been suspended or enjoined from working in the securities business by any court with jurisdiction. [D] The IA has proven to be insolvent.

B. Felons are not allowed to be IA's. Also, the Administrator may deny approval if a misdemeanor has been committed within the last 10 years that is related to the securities business. All of the other answers provide reasonable grounds for denial by the state Administrator.

According to the Uniform Securities Act, every investment advisor shall make and keep such accounts, correspondence, memoranda, papers, books, and other records:
[A] for a period of time not to exceed 1 year. [B] for a period of time no less than 3 years. [C] as the Administrator of the state where the IA is located prescribes by rule or order or by federal law. [D] as prescribed by the SEC only.

C. In the Uniform Securities Act, Section 203, records are to be made and kept as prescribed by the Administrator of the state where the IA's principal place of business is located, except for where federal law takes precedence.

Bonds issued by the US Government or municipalities within the US are exempt from registration. Concerning these securities, all of the following would be TRUE, EXCEPT:
[A] The securities are free from the filing of advertising and sales literature. [B] Those effecting transactions for the securities in the secondary market still must be registered in order to do so. [C] Those providing advice regarding the securities trading in the secondary market still must be registered in order to provide this advice. [D] The Administrator is permitted, by rule or order, to require registration as well as filing of advertising from these issuers if the Administrator finds it is in the public’s best interest.

D. The Administrator has the ability to revoke certain exemptions by rule or order. However, the Administrator does NOT have the ability to deny or revoke exemptions related to US Government securities and Municipal securities, which are exempt.

An Administrator performs a preliminary investigation of an investment advisor and finds that it appears a violation of the Uniform Securities Act has taken place. The Administrator immediately revokes the investment advisory firm’s registration. In this scenario, the Administrator:
[A] has acted appropriately and within his jurisdiction due to the violation. [B] has acted appropriately but would be required to perform a formal investigation. [C] has not acted appropriately, because prior to revoking the registration of an investment advisory registrant, the Administrator must provide appropriate prior notice to the registrant, the opportunity for a hearing, and written findings of fact and conclusions of law. [D] has not acted appropriately, because the Administrator must pursue this revocation through the court system and place the registrant on a suspended status until the conclusion of those court proceedings.

C. The provisions of the Uniform Securities Act require that an Administrator may not enter an order to revoke a registration without 1) providing appropriate prior notice to the registrant, 2) provide an opportunity for a hearing, and 3) provide written findings of fact and conclusions of law.

Since the Administrator immediately revoked the investment advisory firm’s registration, the Administrator has not followed the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act and the Administrator has acted inappropriately, regardless of whether the investment advisory firm was in violation of the Uniform Securities Act or not.

If the Administrator of a State believes that a violation is about to take place or that violations are taking place or on an ongoing basis, what action is permitted under the Uniform Securities Act?
[A] The Administrator can arrest the person or persons suspected. [B] The Administrator can issue a cease and desist order regarding the actions that would constitute violations. [C] The Administrator can serve as judge and preside over a jury trial to prosecute the person(s) suspected of violations. [D] The Administrator can serve a search warrant on the firm and all residences of persons registered with that firm.

B. If the Administrator believe that a person is about to violate or has violated the USA, the Administrator can issue a cease and desist order for the illegal activity. The administrator cannot arrest, serve search warrants (police), and the court system would have to handle prosecutions with jury trials.