Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pulleys to assess a pushing movement? nasm

What is muscular hypertrophy?

  1. An increase in the number of muscle cells
  2. An increase in the size of the muscle cells
  3. A decrease in the size of the muscle cells
  4. An increase in the length of the muscle cells

Which assessment is used to determine upper body strength?

  1. Bench press test
  2. Push-up test
  3. Vertical jump test
  4. Barbell squat test

What muscular action occurs as a limb is pulled toward the midline of the body?

  1. Abduction
  2. Extension
  3. Pronation
  4. Adduction

An Olympic weightlifter who attempts a single rep of an exercise for competition would benefit most from having which type of muscles?

  1. Type IIa
  2. Type I
  3. Slow-twitch
  4. Type IIb

Muscular atrophy occurs as a result of...

  1. Performing the same exercises every workout
  2. Lack of exercise or injury
  3. Progressively overloading the muscles with a well-developed exercise program
  4. Cardiovascular training

Deficiencies of which vitamins or minerals can cause megaloblastic anemia?

  1. Thiamine
  2. Folate & B-12
  3. Iron
  4. Copper

What is the difference between a macro-mineral and a micro-mineral?

  1. Macro's are larger than micro's
  2. Macro's are required in the diet in larger quantities than micro's
  3. Macro's bind together to form large complexes
  4. Micro's are derived from microbial organisms in the gut

During the Gait assessment, the personal trainer should use the lateral view to check which kinetic chain checkpoints?

  1. Lumbo/pelvic/hip complex
  2. Head, low back, and shoulders
  3. Knees
  4. Ankles/feet

High blood LDL cholesterol is detrimental to cardiovascular health; soluble fiber can lower LDL cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods contain soluble fiber?

  1. Oatmeal, fruit, and beans
  2. Meat and dairy products
  3. Whole wheat, brown rice, and seeds
  4. Vegetable oils

Which joint allows for the most freedom of movement?

  1. Ball-and-socket
  2. Hinge
  3. Saddle
  4. Uniaxial

How much time should an American adult commit to exercise each week?

  1. 6.5 hours
  2. 4.5 hours
  3. 2.5 hours
  4. 1.5 hours

What is the single-leg squat test used to assess?

  1. Muscular endurance
  2. Cardiorespiratory fitness
  3. Single-leg functional strength
  4. Bilateral lower body strength

Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance?

  1. Push-up test
  2. 3 min step test
  3. Overhead squat
  4. Barbell squat test

To ensure accuracy of the results, the resting heart rate should be taken at what time of the day?

  1. Before a workout
  2. At the end of the work day
  3. Upon rising in the morning
  4. While resting during a workout

Which of the following techniques is NOT used to assess body composition?

  1. BMI
  2. The Margaria-Kalamen test
  3. Bioelectrical Impedance
  4. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

What term describes the reason somebody does something?

  1. Motivation
  2. Locus of control
  3. Objective
  4. Joy

What happens to a person's base of support when the feet are spread apart further?

  1. It decreases
  2. It stays the same
  3. It's not related to stance
  4. It increases

Which of the following is generally NOT part of a fitness assessment?

  1. Flexibility assessment
  2. Static posture assessment
  3. Daily caloric intake assessment
  4. Cardiorespiratory capacity assessment

Which of the following components of fitness assessment is the best predicator of mortality?

  1. Cardiorespiratory fitness
  2. Flexibility
  3. Muscular power
  4. Static posture

Unless given permission, a trainer should not post ____ or ____ on social media sites.

  1. Contracts, medical, Medical disclosures
  2. Pictures, client reviews
  3. Client reviews, PAR-Q forms
  4. Information about friends, family members

When taking a circumference measurement of the thigh, where should the tape measure be positioned?

  1. Directly above the patella
  2. 8 inches above the patella
  3. 10 inches above the patella
  4. At the smallest point of the upper leg

Which of the following is the strongest indicator of how a client's cardiorespiratory system is responding and adapting to exercise?

  1. Resting heart rate
  2. 1.5 mile run
  3. Body composition
  4. Muscular strength test

Which exercise can improve bone mineral density?

  1. Non-impact exercise
  2. Swimming
  3. Axial loading of the skeleton through weightlifting
  4. Walking outside

Which questionnaire identifies injury or previous surgery?

  1. Lifestyle
  2. PAR-Q
  3. Medical History
  4. General Health History

During exercise that lasts over one hour, how much fluid intake is recommended to maintain hydration?

  1. 20-36 oz/hr
  2. 8-12 oz/hr
  3. 10-15 oz/hr
  4. 40-45 oz/hr

What is the strongest predictor of exercise program adherence?

  1. Goals
  2. Body composition
  3. Previous injury history
  4. Exercise history

What is multiple sclerosis?

  1. A disease associated with memory loss and dementia that occurs later in life
  2. A disease affecting bone mineral density
  3. A disease that affects the myelin sheaths that surround axons on a neuron
  4. A disease that damages the nucleus of neurons

Body composition in relation to a healthy weight...

  1. is a measure of the relative proportions of carbs, proteins, fat, and water in the body
  2. is the % of fat-free mass vs. fat mass in the body
  3. is the % of bone vs. soft tissue in the body
  4. is the % of dry mass vs. water in the body

Which macro-nutrients are the major fuels for exercise?

  1. Carbs & Fats
  2. Protein & Carbs
  3. Protein & Fats
  4. Carbs, Fats, & Proteins

During the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes flattening of the feet. Which of the following terms describes what the personal trainer is observing?

  1. Posterior pelvic tilt
  2. Lower crossed syndrome
  3. Pronation distortion syndrome
  4. Upper crossed syndrome

How long should the rest period be between sets of deadlifts at 5 reps & heavy loads?

  1. 1 min
  2. < 30 secs
  3. 3 mins
  4. 6 mins

How can a trainer tell if the client is legitimately at an 8 or 9 on the RPE scale?

  1. The client will tell the trainer
  2. The client will be unable to complete sentences due to heavy breathing
  3. The trainer will not be able to tell
  4. The client will be able to speak full sentences describing the intensity

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise testing?

  1. Assessing physical work capacity
  2. Assessing movement capabilities
  3. Determining if a medical referral will be needed prior to exercise
  4. Determining acute variables for an exercise program

For a test to be valid, it must be...

  1. Reliable
  2. Helpful
  3. Difficult
  4. Easy

What type of training uses controlled instability to increase proprioception?

  1. Plyometrics
  2. Cardio
  3. Free weight
  4. Core

A lifestyle questionnaire should NOT include questions which pertain to which of the following?

  1. Sleep
  2. Stress
  3. Friends
  4. Smoking

Which of the following will give the personal trainer a general idea of an individual's movement foundation?

  1. Dynamic movement
  2. Flexibility
  3. Static posture
  4. Proprioception

A static postural assessment will provide information on the following, EXCEPT?

  1. Proper cardiovascular function
  2. Joint misalignment
  3. Proper muscle length
  4. Possible muscular dysfunction

Which postural misalignment is characterized by rounded shoulders and a forward head position?

  1. Lower crossed syndrome
  2. Upper crossed syndrome
  3. Pronation distortion
  4. Knee valgus

Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what is supposed to be measured?

  1. Relativity
  2. Honesty
  3. Validity
  4. Strength

which of the following tests is used to estimate aerobic capacity (VO2 max)?

  1. 3 min step
  2. Margaria-Kalamen
  3. Rockport walk
  4. 300-yard shuttle

Proper breathing technique controls...

  1. Power, stabilization, & strength
  2. Core activation, rep tempo, & range of motion
  3. Caloric expenditure, power, & range of motion
  4. Core activation, power, & mind

During the 3 min step test, the metronome should be set to how many beats per minute?

  1. 90
  2. 82
  3. 96
  4. 106

A foam roller is used for what type of training?

  1. PNF stretching
  2. Active stretching
  3. Power training
  4. Self-myofascial release

Advanced lifters who are lifting heavy loads adopt which type of breathing technique?

  1. Valsalva Breathing Maneuver
  2. Pierogi Breath Training
  3. Concentric/Eccentric Breathing Technique
  4. Power & Stability Breathing Maneuver

Ligaments adhere...

  1. Bone to bone
  2. Bone to muscle
  3. Muscle to muscle
  4. Cartilage to bone

Which test is most suitable to assess lower body strength?

  1. Long jump
  2. Barbell squat
  3. Overhead squat
  4. Hexagon

In a standing or sitting position, a client should maintain which 3 points of contact?

  1. Shoulders, calves, heels
  2. Head, shoulders, glutes
  3. Head, glutes, calves
  4. Shoulders, glutes, heels

What are open kinetic chain exercises?

  1. Exercises that allow foot or hand movement
  2. Exercises that load the spine
  3. Exercises that keep either feet or hands at a fixed point
  4. Exercises that rely on a partner to stretch the limbs

Which of the following skin fold sites is used when performing a 3-site skin fold equation for a 52 year old woman?

  1. Chest
  2. Abdomen
  3. Thigh
  4. Subscapular

The sit-and-reach test is used to measure the flexibility of which of the following muscles?

  1. Shoulders and upper back
  2. Shoulders and lower back
  3. Quadriceps and lower back
  4. Lower back and hamstring

Which of these refers to a muscular contraction during which the muscle resists a force as it lengthens?

  1. Eccentric muscle contraction
  2. Concentric muscle contraction
  3. Isotonic muscle contraction
  4. Isometric muscle contraction

Assisted stretching is also know as...

  1. SMR
  2. Foam rolling
  3. Dynamic
  4. PNF

If the rest period is around 30 secs and the load is light, which rep range is most appropriate?

  1. 1
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 15

An effective warm-up should last between 5-10 mins at what type of intensity?

  1. Moderate - high
  2. Multiple interval
  3. Low - moderate
  4. High

Which of the following exercise deterrents is NOT an environmental factor?

  1. Gender
  2. Time
  3. Weather
  4. Social support

Which of the following is NOT among HIPPA's primary objectives?

  1. To simplify obtaining and keeping health insurance
  2. To protect school records
  3. To protect the privacy and security of healthcare information
  4. To aid the healthcare industry in streamlining and minimizing administrative costs

When spotting a shoulder press, where should the spotter's hands be?

  1. Wrists
  2. Elbows
  3. Neck
  4. Back

What types of exercises are considered dynamic stretches?

  1. Med ball chops and prisoner squats
  2. Barbell deadlifts and arm circles
  3. Butt kickers and hamstring static stretch
  4. Squat jumps and shoulder push press

An effective cool down...

  1. Should mimic the warm-up to ensure steady heart rate reduction
  2. Should start with falling on the floor in exhaustion
  3. Should still have weight training in it
  4. Should have the client just walking around

If the client has potentially harmful health issues during an initial meeting to discuss a fitness program, the trainer should...

  1. Advise the client to visit a physician for medical clearance to exercise
  2. Take the client's word on whether they are healthy enough for exercise
  3. Ignore the health concern until it comes up during the course of the program
  4. Send the client to a manger to train

In the power phase of fitness training, what is the primary training emphasis?

  1. Improving muscle endurance
  2. Building prime mover strength
  3. Muscle speed and force production
  4. Balance training

Which is an alternative to standard aerobic training?

  1. Plyometrics
  2. Stretching
  3. Core training
  4. Circuit training

Which behavior change model focuses on understanding the relationship between a person and his/her environment?

  1. Readiness to change model
  2. Social cognitive theory model
  3. Theory of planned behavior
  4. Socio-ecological model

What is a regression of a kettlebell swing?

  1. Straight leg deadlift
  2. Box jump
  3. Single-arm swing
  4. Front raise

What is a primary mover for a wrist curl?

  1. Triceps
  2. Forearm
  3. Shoulder
  4. Biceps

What is a regression for a push press?

  1. Seated dumbbell shoulder press
  2. Standing upright row
  3. Low pulley row
  4. Push-ups

What are the 3 top accredited certifying agencies that set the standards of practice for the fitness industry?

  1. NASM, ACE, ISSA
  2. NASM, ACE, ACSM
  3. NCCA, ANSI, ISSA
  4. ACSM, NSCA, ACE

Inconsistency of a muscle around a joint is considered a...

  1. Muscle knot
  2. Muscle imbalance
  3. Muscle explosion
  4. Muscle structure

A floor crunch is a regression for what core exercise?

  1. Reverse crunch
  2. Plank hold
  3. Hip bridge
  4. Ball crunch

A grip used primarily in parallel bar or dumbbell pushing and pulling movements where the thumbs stay up and the palms face each other is...

  1. Supinated grip
  2. Alternating grip
  3. False grip
  4. Neutral grip

The allied healthcare continuum (AHC) includes all the following professionals, EXCEPT...

  1. A nurse
  2. A psychologist
  3. An occupational therapist
  4. A psychic

Which exercise is most beneficial for basketball players' peak performance?

  1. Bench press
  2. Leg press
  3. Squat jumps
  4. Rotator cuff exercises

What is a regression for a ball crunch?

  1. Single leg windmill
  2. Bent leg sit-up
  3. Abdominal crunch
  4. Cable rotation

Based on the principle of specificity, the fact that football players run one hundred yards at most should tell the trainer not to implement...

  1. Short-distance sprint intervals
  2. Long-distance running
  3. Power exercises for improved speed
  4. Muscular endurance exercises

Performing a specific number of reps through the full range of motion is called...

  1. A workout
  2. The load
  3. Overload
  4. A set

Rest period refers to the break during workouts between which two of the following?

  1. Sets & progressions
  2. Sets & exercises
  3. Sets & range of motion
  4. Strength & endurance

Detraining occurs more rapidly...

  1. In cardiovascular health
  2. In muscular strength
  3. In clients who have previously trained
  4. In professional athletes

When should a personal trainer terminate a cardiorespiratory assessment?

  1. When the client's heart rate increases
  2. When the client requests to stop
  3. When the client begins to perspire
  4. When the client begins to fatigue

Which of the following is most likely to cause a muscular imbalance of the upper body?

  1. A training program that utilizes alternating push and pull exercises
  2. A bodyweight training program that includes exercises for the chest, back, core, and legs
  3. A well-balanced yoga routine with a trained instructor
  4. A unilateral training program emphasizing strengthening of the pectorals and anterior deltoids

Resistance training programs for children and adolescents should focus on...

  1. Increasing weight lifted
  2. Specific and repetitive movements
  3. High intensity exercise
  4. Proper technique and form

Which grip is overhanded?

  1. Alternate grip
  2. Supinated grip
  3. Pronated grip
  4. Clean grip

Which 2 might be the proper regression and progression of the push-up exercise?

  1. Alternating single-leg push-ups & BOSU Ball push-ups
  2. Push-ups with feet elevated & clapping push-ups
  3. Kneeling push-ups & wall push-ups
  4. Kneeling push-ups & push-ups with feet elevated

Which test would be the most important indicator of a client's ability to complete the activities of daily living?

  1. Strength test
  2. Cardiorespiratory test
  3. Movement test
  4. Static posture test

Which answer describes why the following is not a SMART goal?
The client wants to lose 25 lbs in 2 months

  1. The goal is not specific
  2. The goal is not time-stamped
  3. The goal is not realistic
  4. The goal is not measurable

If a client has had a recent joint surgery, what should the trainer do before starting the fitness program?

  1. A fitness assessment
  2. Require the client to get a physician's clearance to exercise
  3. Take the client through a workout and avoid the injured joint
  4. Tell the client to work out on their own

When should PNF stretching be implemented into the program?

  1. During the warm-up
  2. During the resistance training phase
  3. Before performing cardiovascular exercise
  4. During the flexibility and cool-down

Novice clients' rest periods may differ from those of advanced clients in that...

  1. Novices will require less rest before starting the next set of an exercise
  2. Novices mat require more rest periods per workout than advanced clients
  3. Novices should get rest periods only between different exercises but not between sets
  4. Novices should get rest periods only between sets but not between exercises

Along with proper body positioning, another way to isolate muscle groups with efficiency is to use different types of _____ while lifting barbells, dumbbells, or kettlebells, and while using weight machines.

  1. Weights
  2. Breathing
  3. Grips
  4. Swings

The Karvonen formula is used to calculate...

  1. Maximum heart rate
  2. Target heart rate
  3. Resting heart rate
  4. Heart rate recovery

The 1RM test measures the client's...

  1. Ability to perform an exercise at the maximal effort of strength for a single rep
  2. Weight utilized for all exercises in the program
  3. Target heart rate zone
  4. Ability to perform an exercise at sub-maximal efforts for multiple reps

Which of the following tests determines an exercise program's progression or regression?

  1. Pretest
  2. Midtest
  3. Post-test
  4. Formative evaluation

Which two effects of cardiovascular training are consistent between aerobic and anaerobic exercise during the workout?

  1. Increased heart rate and lactate threshold
  2. Increased heart rate and type II muscle fiber recruitment
  3. Increased heart rate and respiration rate
  4. Increased blood pressure and type I muscle fiber recruitment

CEC stands for...

  1. Constant educational content
  2. Continuing education credit
  3. Collective exercise collaboration
  4. Care education collective

The second transition period is a period of...

  1. High-intensity training
  2. Sports-specific training
  3. No physical activity at all
  4. Active recovery involving non-specific recreational activity

A superset in a training program refers to...

  1. Performing an exercise and gradually increasing load, then decreasing load per set
  2. Performing multiple sets of a single exercise with intermittent rest periods
  3. Performing an exercise and then immediately performing another exercise utilizing the antagonist or opposite muscle groups
  4. Performing a series of different exercises in a row with a rest period at the end of the series

Self-efficacy is...

  1. Self-control
  2. Willpower
  3. Self-love
  4. Belief in oneself

Program design for athletic improvement relies heavily on...

  1. Exercise specificity
  2. Resistance training every day
  3. Cardiovascular training every day
  4. The amount of weight the athlete can lift for one rep

What is a dynamic assessment Nasm?

6. Dynamic Assessments. Use Dynamic Assessments for clients with higher levels of control, coordination, and stability and those with performance-related goals. While there are many dynamic assessments to choose from, NASM recommends at least one for lower- and one for the upper-extremities.

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement Nasm?

The overhead squat is a dynamic movement assessment. It is the quickest way to gain an overall impression of a client's functional status. This assessment helps to evaluate one's dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.

What is transitional movement assessment?

Transitional movement assessments are assessments that involve movement without a change in one's base of support. This would include movements such as squatting, pressing, pushing, pulling, and balancing. Dynamic movement assessments are assessments that involve movement with a change in one's base of support.

What type of assessment is the single leg squat assessment Nasm?

Single-leg squat (SLS) is a functional test, visually rated by clinicians, for assessing lower limb function as a preventive injury strategy. SLS clinical rating is a qualitative evaluation and it does not count objective outcomes as kinematics data and surface electromyography (sEMG) assessment.