In which of the following positions or projections will the subtalar joint be visualized?

How must the patient's arm be positioned for a good AP projection of the scapula?

A.  Adducted B.  Abducted C.  Internally rotated D.  Externally rotated

B.  Abducted
Abducting the arm means bringing the arm away from the midline of the body. This brings the scapula out into the soft tissue of the axilla and prevents superimposition by the ribs.

"Gout" is a disease of the joint that is a result of which of the following?

A.  Inactivity B.  Inflammation C.  Injury D.  Excessive uric acid

D.  Excessive uric acid

Gout, often presenting as pain and swelling of the great toe, is a result of excessive uric acid.

The first metacarpal is located on which side of the hand?

A.  Lateral B.  Medial C.  Ulnar D.  Inside

A.  Lateral
The first metacarpal is on the thumb side, which is the lateral side of the hand.

A lateral position of the scapula requires which of the following?

A.  Affected arm raised B.  Patient breathes shallowly C.  Spine of scapula parallel to image receptor D.  Central ray to coracoid process

A.  Affected arm raised
Raising the arm gets the humerus away from the body of the scapula.

Which of the following anatomical structures would NOT be seen in a radiograph of the elbow?

A.  Head of the radius B.  Olecranon process C.  Coronoid process D.  Styloid process of the radius

D.  Styloid process of the radius

The styloid process of the radius is located on the distal radius, near the wrist joint.

Which of the malleoli is part of the distal tibia?

A.  Superior B.  Anterior C.  Medial D.  Lateral

C.  Medial
The tibia has two malleoli, the medial malleolus and the posterior malleolus.

Where should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the knee joint?

A.  1 cm proximal to the base of the patella B.  1 cm distal to the apex of the patella C.  1 cm distal to the base of the patella D.  Parallel to the patellar surface

B.  1 cm distal to the apex of the patella
The patella is triangular shaped with the apex of the triangle pointing down. Therefore, the correct CR location would be 1 cm distal to the apex of the patella.

The trochlea of the humerus articulates with which of the following anatomical structures?

A.  Radial tuberosity B.  Head of the radius C.  Styloid process of the ulna D.  Trochlear notch of the ulna

D.  Trochlear notch of the ulna

The trochlear notch of the ulna is also known as the semilunar notch of the ulna.

What is the most proximal end of the ulna called?

A.  Styloid process B.  Olecranon process C.  Deltoid tuberosity D.  Trochlea

B.  Olecranon process
The proximal end of the ulna is near the elbow joint. The olecranon process is the proximal end of the ulna.

What is the rounded process on the proximal, medial aspect of the femur called?

A.  Medial epicondyle B.  Lesser tuberosity C.  Lesser trochanter D.  Femoral tuberosity

C.  Lesser trochanter
The lesser trochanter is medial and on the posterior surface of the femur. The head of the femur is also rounded, proximal and medial.

Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus inferiorly?

A.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis) B.  Cuboid C.  Cuneiform D.  Navicular

A.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
The calcaneus (os calcis) lies directly below (inferior to) the talus.

Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?

A.  Scaphoid B.  Lunate C.  Hamate D.  Pisiform

A.  Scaphoid
The scaphoid's relationship with the radius makes it easily fractured when a person stretches out his/her arms to stop a fall.

Where should the central ray enter for a medial oblique position of the 3rd toe?

A.  3rd metatarsophalangeal joint B.  3rd distal interphalangeal joint C.  3rd proximal interphalangeal joint D.  3rd intertarsal joint

A.  3rd metatarsophalangeal joint
Centering to the 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint will include the distal half of the 3rd metatarsal.

"Osteoarthritis" is defined by which of the following?

A.  Degenerative muscle disease B.  Chronic joint disease C.  A joint injury D.  Malignant joint tumor

B.  Chronic joint disease
Osteoarthritis, meaning inflammation (-itis) of the bone (oste) and joints (arthr-), is a chronic joint disease.

Which of the following positions could be used if there is an obvious fracture of the upper humerus?

A.  AP internal rotation B.  AP external rotation C.  Transaxillary D.  Transthoracic lateral

D.  Transthoracic lateral

If there is an obvious fracture or even a suspected fracture the humerus should not be moved. The transthoracic lateral is one way of getting a lateral position without having to move the arm.

Which direction and how many degrees must the tube be angled to best visualize the knee joint, of a large patient, in an AP projection?

A.  Cephalad, 5 degrees B.  Caudad, 5 degrees C.  Cephalad, 15 degrees D.  Caudad, 15 degrees

A.  Cephalad, 5 degrees
Since the thigh is larger than the lower leg, the knee joint lies on an angle which would require the CR to be angled cephalad, 5 degrees.

Which of the carpal bones is "pea-shaped"?

A.  Capitate B.  Pisiform C.  Lunate D.  Hamate

B.  Pisiform
It is important to know the shape of the carpal bones as well as their names. Since it is the shape of the bone that is seen on a radiograph.

What are the joints called that are between the metacarpals and the proximal phalanges?

A.  Interphalangeal joints B.  Carpometacarpal joints C.  Metacarpophalangeal joints D.  Synarthrodial joints

C.  Metacarpophalangeal joints
The joints between the metacarpals and the proximal phalanges are called metacarpophalangeal joints.

How many carpal bones are there in a normal right wrist?

A.  2 B.  4 C.  6 D.  8

D.  8

The names of the eight carpal bones are scaphoid (navicular), lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate (os magnum), and hamate.

Why does an AP projection of the foot require a 10 degree angle toward the calcaneus (os calcis)?

1. Toes have a natural 10 degree curvature
2. Intertarsal joints lie at a 10 degree angle
3. The strongest x rays go through the thickest part
A.  1 & 2 only B.  1 & 3 only C.  2 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

D.  1, 2 & 3

A 10 degree angle will show the joints of the toes and foot better than a perpendicular CR. Also, the angle will direct the stronger CR through the thickest part of the foot.

What is the name of the projection that can be palpated on the medial aspect of the humerus?

A.  Olecranon process B.  Coronoid process C.  Coracoid process D.  Medial epicondyle

D.  Medial epicondyle

Both epicondyles can be palpated on the distal humerus. Naturally, the medial epicondyle is located on the medial aspect of the humerus.

Which of the following positions/projections should be done if the patient has a suspected hip fracture?

A.  AP and PA B.  AP and Cleaves C.  AP and cross-table lateral D.  Internal and external rotation

C.  AP and cross-table lateral
Naturally, the leg should not be moved if a fracture is suspected but two views are necessary. Therefore, an AP projection and a cross-table lateral position are the only acceptable views.

Which of the following bones articulates with the bases of the metatarsals?

A.  Proximal phalanges B.  Distal phalanges C.  Tarsals D.  Tibia and fibula

C.  Tarsals
The bases are located at the proximal end of the metatarsals near the tarsal bones.

Which two bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A.  Clavicle and humerus B.  Clavicle and scapula C.  Scapula and humerus D.  Scapula and sternum

B.  Clavicle and scapula
The purpose of the shoulder girdle (clavicle and scapula) is support for the arm (humerus).

Which of the following tarsal bones articulates with the talus anteriorly?

A.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis) B.  Cuboid C.  Cuneiform D.  Navicular

D.  Navicular
The navicular lies anterior to the talus and the calcaneus lies inferior to the talus.

How many phalanges are in the thumb?

A.  1 B.  2 C.  3 D.  4

B.  2
The proximal phalanx and the distal phalanx are in the thumb. The other digits have a middle phalanx.

Which of the following is a common name for the position that demonstrates the intercondyloid fossa?

A.  Shovel view B.  Sunrise view C.  Tunnel view D.  Skyline view

C.  Tunnel view
On the radiograph, the space between the two condyles of the femur actually looks like a tunnel. This view can be obtained by three different methods (Camp Coventry, Holmblad, and AP axial).

Where should the central ray enter for an AP projection of the shoulder joint?

A.  Acromion process B.  Scapular notch C.  Glenoid process D.  Coracoid process

D.  Coracoid process

The CR should enter the coracoid process for an AP projection of the shoulder joint. However, the CR should enter midway between the manubrial notch and the lateral humerus for an AP projection of the shoulder girdle.

What view of the patella will be obtained with the patient prone and the affected knee flexed 90 degrees?

A.  Settegast B.  Merchant C.  Hughston D.  Stecher

A.  Settegast
The Settegast position has the CR directed to the long axis of the patella. With the patient prone and the knee flexed, the patella would be perpendicular to the table top. The CR would go down the long axis of the patella, the result would be an axial view.

Which bone in the forearm is located laterally?

A.  Radius B.  Ulna C.  Humerus D.  Scaphoid

A.  Radius
The radius is located laterally and the ulna is located medially. The scaphoid is located laterally, but it is located in the wrist not the forearm.

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the coronoid process of the ulna?

A.  AP B.  45 degree internal oblique C.  45 degree external oblique D.  90 degree lateral

B.  45 degree internal oblique
A 45 degree internal oblique best demonstrates the coronoid process of the ulna. A 45 degree external oblique best demonstrates the head of the radius. Both are necessary to properly demonstrate the elbow joint.

Which of the following would require a lateral rotation for its oblique position?

A.  Hip B.  Knee C.  Ankle D.  5th toe

D.  5th toe

In order to get the 5th toe closest to the image receptor, a lateral rotation would be necessary for an oblique position.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the scaphoid bone in the wrist?

A.  Ulnar deviation B.  Radial flexion C.  Lateral D.  Carpal canal

A.  Ulnar deviation
The scaphoid is near the radius. Ulnar deviation (moving the hand toward the ulna) opens the joints between the adjacent carpal bones.

On which side of the foot does the cuboid lie?

A.  Plantar B.  Dorsal C.  Medial D.  Lateral

D.  Lateral

The three cuneiforms are on the medial side of the foot and the cuboid lies laterally to them.

How many degrees should the tube be angled for an AP axial projection of the clavicle of an average patient?

A.  15 degrees caudad B.  15 degrees cephalad C.  45 degrees caudad D.  45 degrees cephalad

B.  15 degrees cephalad
The purpose of the 15 degree cephalad angle is to project the clavicle above the scapula to prevent superimposition of the two bones.

Where does the trochlea lie in comparison to the capitulum?

A.  Superior B.  Inferior C.  Medial D.  Lateral

C.  Medial
The trochlea and capitulum are located on the distal humerus. They articulate with the radius and ulna to make the elbow joint. The trochlea is medial to the capitulum.

The capitullum of the humerus articulates with which of the following anatomical structures?

A.  Styloid process of the radius B.  Head of the radius C.  Head of the ulna D.  Styloid process of the ulna

B.  Head of the radius
A good way to remember this is that a cap fits on your head. The capitullum articulates with the head of the radius!

Which of the following must be done for a properly positioned AP projection of the ankle?

1. Ankle joint flexed
2. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad
3. Plantar surface touching the image receptor
A.  1 only B.  3 only C.  2 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

A.  1 only
The ankle joint must be flexed, the CR perpendicular to the joint and the plantar surface of the foot perpendicular to the image receptor to clearly see the ankle joint.

How many bones are in an entire adult skeleton?

A.  100 B.  106 C.  200 D.  206

D.  206

An infant would have 266 individual bones, but as they fuse together the number is reduced. Other bones form (e.g. patella) and the final result is 206 bones in an adult.

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand?

A.  Tunnel B.  Carpal C.  Ulnar flexion D.  Lateral in extension

D.  Lateral in extension

A lateral hand with the fingers extended would show the depth of a foreign body within the hand.

The trapezium articulates with which of the following?

A.  Hamate B.  Pisiform C.  1st metacarpal D.  5th metacarpal

C.  1st metacarpal
The first metacarpal is usually fairly easily located on a radiograph of the hand or wrist. The only carpal bone that is articulating with it is the trapezium.

Where should the central ray enter for a unilateral AP projection of the hip?

A.  Acetabulum B.  Hip joint C.  Femoral neck D.  Mid-body (shaft) of the femur

C.  Femoral neck
The femoral neck is the CR location for all unilateral views of the hip whether AP, frog, or cross-table.

Where is the anatomical neck of the humerus located in relation to the surgical neck?

A.  Lateral B.  Superior C.  Inferior D.  Medial

B.  Superior
The anatomical neck is located directly below (inferior) the head of the humerus. The surgical neck is located more distally below (inferior) the tubercles where the humerus is narrower.

Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the hand?

A.  3rd carpometacarpal joint B.  3rd metacarpophalangeal joint C.  3rd interphalangeal joint D.  3rd proximal carpal joint

B.  3rd metacarpophalangeal joint
The 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint is located in the center of the hand, so this is a good place to have the CR enter.

To prevent superimposition of the bones of the forearm, which of the following positions/projections must be taken?

A.  AP B.  PA C.  Oblique position D.  Lateral position

A.  AP
When the forearm is rotated into a PA projection the radius and ulna cross. To prevent this superimposition, an AP projection must be taken.

The medial malleolus, lateral malleolus and talus form which joint?

A.  Knee B.  Ankle C.  Foot D.  Subtalar

B.  Ankle
The medial malleolus is part of the tibia, the lateral malleolus is part of the fibula. These two bones of the lower leg make up a socket called the mortise, which holds the talus bone of the foot.

The head of the humerus articulates with which part of the scapula?

A.  Glenoid cavity B.  Olecranon fossa C.  Scapular notch D.  Styloid process

A.  Glenoid cavity
The head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula to form the shoulder joint.

How many distal phalanges are there in a foot?

A.    4 B.    5 C.  12 D.  14

B.    5
Each digit (toe) of the foot has a distal and proximal phalanx. The 2nd through 5th digits also have a middle phalanx.

Where should the central ray enter for a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A.  3rd metatarsophalangeal joint B.  Base of the 3rd metatarsal C.  Anterior talus D.  Medial cuneiform

B.  Base of the 3rd metatarsal
The base of the 3rd metatarsal is the proximal end of the metatarsal, which is in the center of the foot.

In this shoulder radiograph, the humerus is in which of the following positions?

A.  Lateral B.  AP internal rotation C.  AP external rotation D.  Transaxillary

C.  AP external rotation
AP external rotation of the humerus will put the greater tubercle in profile laterally. This radiograph represents an AP projection of the right shoulder girdle.

Which of the following is necessary for a true lateral position of the elbow?

1. Hand placed in a lateral position
2. Elbow flexed 90 degrees
3. Humeral epicondyles superimposed
A.  1 & 2 only B.  1 & 3 only C.  2 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

D.  1, 2 & 3

The hand in a lateral position with the thumb straight up, the elbow flexed 90 degrees and the humerus on the same plane as the forearm is the only way to produce a true lateral elbow.

The actual wrist joint is made up of which bones?

A.  Scaphoid and lunate B.  Ulna and pisiform C.  Ulna, triquetral and scaphoid D.  Radius, scaphoid and lunate

D.  Radius, scaphoid and lunate

The radius is the only bone of the forearm that directly articulates with the scaphoid of the carpal bones.

How many phalanges are there in each foot?

A.    5 B.    7 C.  14 D.  24

C.  14
Phalanges are the small bones that make up the digits (toes) of the foot. There are two phalanges in the 1st digit and three phalanges in the 2nd - 5th digits for a total of fourteen.

What is the name of the largest tarsal bone?

A.  Talus B.  Cuboid C.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis) D.  Navicular

C.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis)
The calcaneus (os calcis) is also called the heel bone. It is the largest and strongest bone of the foot.

Which of the following bones is in the proximal row of carpals?

A.  Trapezoid B.  Triquetrum C.  Capitate D.  Hamate

B.  Triquetrum
The proximal row of carpal bones is the row nearest the radius and ulna. It contains the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and pisiform.

How many degrees is the hand rotated for an oblique position?

A.  15 degrees B.  30 degrees C.  45 degrees D.  60 degrees

C.  45 degrees
45 degrees is the perfect amount of rotation, 60 degrees would be too steep and the metacarpals would overlap.

With the foot and lower leg rotated medially 45 degrees, what position of the ankle would be obtained?

A.  AP B.  Semi-axial C.  Oblique D.  Steep lateral

C.  Oblique
An oblique position is when the body part is rotated somewhere between an AP projection and a lateral position. Usually a 45 degree rotation.

When the patient is in a Cleaves position (frog), how are the patient's thighs positioned?

A.  Adducted B.  Abducted C.  Elevated D.  Extended

B.  Abducted
Abducted means that the thighs are moved away from the midline of the body.

The acromion is located on which of the following bones?

A.  Radius B.  Ulna C.  Clavicle D.  Scapula

D.  Scapula

The acromion is located on the upper, lateral portion of the scapula.

Which of the following root words means "bone"?

A.  Verte B.  Kypho C.  Oste D.  Orth

C.  Oste
The word root for bone is "oste".

The medial cuneiform articulates with which of the following?

A.  Cuboid B.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis) C.  First metatarsal D.  First phalanx

C.  First metatarsal
The medial (1st) cuneiform articulates with the 1st metatarsal, the intermediate (2nd) cuneiform with the 2nd metatarsal and the lateral (3rd) cuneiform with the 3rd metatarsal.

Which of the following is the largest bone in the upper extremity?

A.  Radius B.  Ulna C.  Humerus D.  Clavicle

C.  Humerus
Without a doubt, the humerus is the largest bone in the upper extremity.

Which two positions/projections are taken of a shoulder that has NOT been injured?

A.  AP and external rotation B.  AP and PA C.  AP and transthoracic D.  AP internal and AP external rotation

D.  AP internal and AP external rotation

An internal and external rotation of the humerus will provide an AP and lateral of the humerus. An AP and transthoracic could be used for a shoulder with injury.

What is the most distal portion of the fibula called?

A.  Apex B.  Lateral malleolus C.  Medial malleolus D.  Head

B.  Lateral malleolus
The lateral malleolus of the fibula helps make up the ankle joint.

What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

A.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis) B.  Talus C.  Patella D.  Cuboid

C.  Patella
The patella is located in the quadriceps tendon to help protect the anterior portion of the knee joint.

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the olecranon process of the ulna?

A.  AP B.  45 degree internal oblique C.  45 degree external oblique D.  90 degree lateral

D.  90 degree lateral
The olecranon process of the ulna is superimposed by the humerus in all of the positions/projections except the lateral.

Which of the following is used to determine if there is any separation of the AC joint?

A.  Patient erect, steep oblique B.  Patient erect, holding weights C.  Patient supine D.  15 degree cephalad angle

B.  Patient erect, holding weights
With the patient erect and holding weights, the force of the weights should demonstrate a separation of the acromioclavicular (AC) joint.

Which of the following should NOT be seen in an AP radiograph of the hip if the femur is rotated correctly?

A.  Lesser trochanter B.  Greater trochanter C.  Femoral neck D.  Intertrochanteric crest

A.  Lesser trochanter
The lesser trochanter will be superimposed by the femoral neck when the femur is correctly rotated internally.

In this radiograph, what position is the elbow in?

A.  AP B.  45 degree internal oblique C.  45 degree external oblique D.  90 degree lateral

C.  45 degree external oblique
The purpose of the external oblique is to demonstrate the head of the radius.

The "frog" lateral is a common name given to a position for which of the following anatomical areas?

A.  Intercondyloid fossa B.  Subtalar joint C.  Hip joint D.  Club foot

C.  Hip joint
The bi-lateral "frog-leg" position is also known as the Cleaves position.

Which of the following is a branch of science that deals with the aged?

A.  Pediatrics B.  Geriatrics C.  Senility D.  Alzheimers

B.  Geriatrics
The scientific study of all aspects of aging and the elderly is called geriatrics.

When radiographing the 2nd digit in the lateral position, which part of the digit is closest to the image receptor?

A.  Palmar B.  Dorsal C.  Medial D.  Lateral

D.  Lateral

The hand should be resting on the lateral side (thumb side). This gets the part as close to the image receptor as possible for better recorded detail and less distortion.

Which of the following describes a compound fracture?

A.  The broken bone pierces the skin B.  The break is in the lower leg C.  The bone is in many small pieces D.  The fracture is in the skull

A.  The broken bone pierces the skin
A compound fracture involves the broken bone protruding through the skin.

What is the radiographic examination of the menisci called?

A.  Phlebography B.  Popliteal angiogram C.  Tibial radiography D.  Knee arthrography

D.  Knee arthrography

The menisci are located in the knee joint to absorb some of the shock between the femur and the tibia. Arthro means joint. Fortunately, MRI has replaced most knee arthrography.

Which of the following is NOT a border of the scapula?

A.  Lateral B.  Inferior C.  Superior D.  Medial

B.  Inferior
The scapula has an inferior angle, but not an inferior border.

Which of the following bones is the longest?

A.  1st metacarpal B.  2nd metacarpal C.  Ulna D.  Radius

C.  Ulna
The ulna and the radius make up the bones of the forearm. The ulna is longer than the radius.

An infection of the bone is referred to as what?

A.  Osteomyelitis B.  Osteoblast C.  Osteosclerosis D.  Osteoporosis

A.  Osteomyelitis
Osteomyelitis is an inflammation (-itis) of the bone (oste) and marrow (myel). This is caused by a pathogenic organism.

What is the hollow portion of the body (shaft) of a long bone called?

A.  Osteum B.  Medullary cavity C.  Periosteum D.  Cortex

B.  Medullary cavity
Oste- refers to bone; periosteum is the membrane that covers the bone; the cortex is the dense bone; the medullary cavity contains bone marrow.

Which anatomical landmarks are used to locate the neck of the femur?

A.  Symphysis and greater trochanter B.  Symphysis and crest of the ilium C.  Symphysis and A.S.I.S. D.  Symphysis and ischial tuberosity

C.  Symphysis and A.S.I.S.
An imaginary line drawn between the symphysis and the A.S.I.S. (anterior superior iliac spine) goes directly through the hip joint. A point 2" perpendicular and inferior to that line is where the neck of the femur is located.

Which of the following is an inflammation of the fluid-filled sacs that surround a joint?

A.  Bursitis B.  Callus C.  Atrophy D.  Acetylcholine

A.  Bursitis
The fluid filled sac around a joint is a bursa. Inflammation of the bursa is bursitis.

What is another name for an AP projection of the foot?

A.  Subtalar projection B.  Dorsoplantar projection C.  Plantodorsal projection D.  Semi-axial projection

B.  Dorsoplantar projection
Although often called an AP projection, dorsoplantar (DP) projection is a more accurate and descriptive term.

What is the name of the joint between the two bones of the shoulder girdle?

A.  Acromioclavicular joint B.  Shoulder joint C.  Sternoclavicular joint D.  Scapular notch

A.  Acromioclavicular joint
The shoulder girdle is made up of the clavicle and the scapula. It is designed to support the arm. The only place these two bones articulate is between the acromion process of the scapula and the acromion extremity of the clavicle.

For a lateral position of the knee, the joint space will NOT be obscured by the medial femoral condyle if the CR is angled 5 degrees in which direction?

A.  Cephalad B.  Medially C.  Caudad D.  Laterally

A.  Cephalad
A 5 degree cephalad angle will superimpose the femoral condyles, leaving the joint space well visualized.

What is the name of the bony projection on the tibial plateau?

A.  Tibial tuberosity B.  Tibial tubercle C.  Intercondyloid eminence D.  Superior epicondyle

C.  Intercondyloid eminence
The intercondyloid eminence is the projection between the condyle of the femur (inter means between). This is also known as the tibial spine.

What anatomical structures are referred to as the "knuckles"?

A.  Metacarpophalangeal joints B.  Carpometacarpal joints C.  Interphalangeal joints D.  Intercarpal joints

A.  Metacarpophalangeal joints
The distal heads of the metacarpals are the "knuckles" you see when you make a fist.

For an oblique position of a foot, how many degrees should the foot be rotated?

A.  15 degrees B.  30 degrees C.  45 degrees D.  60 degrees

B.  30 degrees
For most positions a 45 degree oblique is required, however, a 45 degree oblique of the foot would make the metatarsals be superimposed. A 30 degree oblique prevents this superimposition.

What is the best way to determine a true lateral position of the knee?

1. Femoral condyles superimposed
2. Malleoli on same transverse plane
3. Knee flexed 90 degrees
A.  1 only B.  2 only C.  1 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

A.  1 only
In order to have the knee in a true lateral position, the femoral condyles must be superimposed. This is true whether the patient is on his/her affected side or a cross-table lateral is done.

Which of the following is the most likely location for a fracture of the humerus?

A.  Anatomical neck B.  Surgical neck C.  Medial condyle D.  Lateral condyle

B.  Surgical neck
The surgical neck is most likely to fracture because it is the tapered area below the tubercles of the humerus.

For the frog-leg position of a unilateral hip, where is the central ray directed?

A.  Perpendicular to the femoral neck B.  Parallel to the femoral neck C.  Parallel to the body (shaft) D.  Perpendicular to the acetabulum

A.  Perpendicular to the femoral neck
All lateral projections of the hip (eg., cross-table and unilateral) require the CR to be perpendicular to the neck of the femur.

When one bone segment is driven into another it is known as what type of fracture?

A.  Compound B.  Fatigue C.  Blow out D.  Impacted

D.  Impacted

An impacted fracture has occurred when one part of the bone is driven into another.

A disorder that is present at birth is known as what?

A.  Mutation B.  Congenital C.  Homogeneous D.  Homozygous

B.  Congenital
A congenital disorder is one that is present at birth.

Which bones make up the elbow joint?

A.  Radius and ulna B.  Radius and humerus C.  Radius, ulna and humerus D.  Capitulum, trochlea and radial head

C.  Radius, ulna and humerus
The elbow joint is made up of articulations between the forearm (radius and ulna) and the upper arm (humerus).

Which of the following fractures is caused by a diseased bone?

A.  Fatigue fracture B.  Pathological fracture C.  Medullary fracture D.  Disuse atrophy fracture

B.  Pathological fracture
Diseased (pathologic) bone can break due to the weakness caused by the disease. This is a pathologic fracture.

What is the name of the concave, articular surface of the proximal tibia?

A.  Intercondylar eminence B.  Tibial plateau C.  Tibial tuberosity D.  Anterior crest of the tibia

B.  Tibial plateau
The proximal tibia helps make up the knee joint. The articular facets that articulate with the condyles of the femur are called the tibial plateau.

Which of the following is commonly called "skin cancer"?

A.  Eczema B.  Psoriasis C.  Epidermitis D.  Squamous cell carcinoma

D.  Squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma is a malignant tumor of the squamous epithelial cells of the epidermis, more commonly referred to as skin cancer.

Which of the following cannot be palpated?

A.  Styloid process of the ulna B.  Olecranon process C.  Radial tuberosity D.  Humeral epicondyles

C.  Radial tuberosity
The radial tuberosity is located on the medial anterior aspect of the radius. It would be difficult to palpate because of the muscle and tendon located in that area.

Which of the following positions/projections will best show the space between the patella and the femur?

A.  AP B.  Axial C.  Internal oblique D.  External oblique

B.  Axial
An axial projection means the CR is directed along the long axis of the bone. The axial projection and a lateral are the only views that would demonstrate the space behind the patella.

To get the wrist nearest the image receptor for a PA projection, which of the following must be done?

A.  Elbow flexed 90 degrees B.  Digits extended C.  Digits separated D.  Digits flexed

D.  Digits flexed
With the fingers flexed so the finger tips are resting on the image receptor, the distal radius and ulna will be resting on the image receptor.

What is the name of the largest bone in the lower leg?

A.  Femur B.  Tibia C.  Fibula D.  Talus

B.  Tibia
The tibia and fibula are the bones in the lower leg. The tibia is larger and also longer than the fibula.

What separates the head of the humerus from the body (shaft) of the humerus?

A.  Anatomical neck B.  Bicipital groove C.  Lesser tubercle D.  Trochlea

A.  Anatomical neck
Directly below the head of the humerus is a narrowed area called the anatomical neck.

For a routine, lateral position of the wrist, which surface is nearest the image receptor?

A.  Medial B.  Lateral C.  Posterior D.  Ventral

A.  Medial
The wrist would be resting on the medial surface, with the thumb (lateral surface) pointing straight up in the air.

What is the name of the process that extends anteriorly from the scapula?

A.  Acromion process B.  Coronoid process C.  Glenoid process D.  Coracoid process

D.  Coracoid process

There are two coronoid processes. One in the elbow and the other in the mandible.

When a bone is splintered or crushed into many pieces it is what type of fracture?

A.  Compound B.  Comminuted C.  Blow out D.  Impacted

B.  Comminuted
A comminuted fracture involves the bone being splintered or crushed.

What does the root word "orth" mean?

A.  Straight B.  Vertebra C.  Bone D.  Fracture

A.  Straight
The root word "orth", as used in the term orthopedics, means "straight".

What is the name of the structure that separates the two posterior fossae of the scapula?

A.  Scapular notch B.  Acromion process C.  Spine of the scapula D.  Coracoid process

C.  Spine of the scapula
On the posterior of the scapula, the supraspinous fossa and the infraspinous fossa are separated by the spine of the scapula.

For the best recorded detail, which of the following positions/projections of the clavicle should be used?

A.  AP B.  PA C.  Lateral D.  Oblique

B.  PA
A PA projection will put the clavicle closest to the image receptor for better recorded detail.

Which of the following serves to fasten muscles to bones?

A.  Ligaments B.  Tendons C.  Extenders D.  Meniscus

B.  Tendons
Tendons fasten muscles to bones. Ligaments hold joints together.

When radiographing the hip in the AP projection, what should be done to the patient's foot?

A.  Elevated B.  Rotated internally C.  Rotated externally D.  Abducted

B.  Rotated internally
By rotating the foot internally, the neck of the femur will not look foreshortened as it would if the foot was vertical or rotated externally.

Which of the following is necessary to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?

A.  CR perpendicular to the knee joint B.  CR perpendicular to the lower leg C.  CR parallel to the patella D.  Knee fully flexed

B.  CR perpendicular to the lower leg
The key to a good intercondyloid fossa view is to have the CR perpendicular to the lower leg (which is flexed 40-50 degrees) and directed through the knee joint.

Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the 3rd digit?

A.  3rd metacarpophalangeal joint B.  3rd proximal interphalangeal joint C.  3rd distal interphalangeal joint D.  3rd carpophalangeal joint

B.  3rd proximal interphalangeal joint
Only the 3rd digit has to be included for a PA projection, therefore, the CR would enter at the 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint.

What tissue is found in the medullary cavity of a long bone?

A.  Cartilage B.  Marrow C.  Meniscus D.  Periosteum

B.  Marrow
All long bones have a hollow center (medullary cavity) which contains marrow.

The accuracy of a lateral elbow can be determined by the superimposition of which of the following?

A.  Humeral condyles B.  Radius and ulna C.  Trochlea and radial head D.  Coronoid process and radial head

A.  Humeral condyles
A true lateral elbow will be accomplished when the elbow is flexed 90 degrees and the humeral condyles (medial and lateral) are superimposed.

Where is the scapular notch located?

A.  Superior to the scapular spine B.  Inferior to the scapular spine C.  Inferior to the supraspinous fossa D.  Lateral to the acromion process

A.  Superior to the scapular spine
The scapular notch is located on the superior border of the scapula, at the base of the coracoid process. It allows the passage of blood vessels and nerves.

What is a fracture at the distal end of the radius called?

A.  Colles' fracture B.  Fatigue fracture C.  March fracture D.  Jones fracture

A.  Colles' fracture
The Colles' fracture is a transverse fracture of the distal end of the radius, just above the wrist.

At which end of the ulna is the styloid process located?

A.  Medial B.  Lateral C.  Proximal D.  Distal

D.  Distal

The styloid process of the ulna is located near the wrist joint. It is very obvious protruding from the posterior, medial surface of the forearm.

What type of fracture is often seen in children where one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent?

A.  Compression fracture B.  Greenstick fracture C.  Colles' fracture D.  Jones fracture

B.  Greenstick fracture
A greenstick fracture, involving only part of the thickness of the bone, is common in children due to the pliability of their bones.

What is the name of the largest bone in the lower extremity?

A.  Fibula B.  Tibia C.  Femur D.  Calcaneus (Os Calcis)

C.  Femur
The femur, by far, is the largest bone of the lower extremity.

What is the rounded process on the proximal, lateral aspect of the femur called?

A.  Lateral epicondyle B.  Greater trochanter C.  Greater tuberosity D.  Femoral tuberosity

B.  Greater trochanter
The proximal end of the femur is up by the hip joint. There are two trochanters, the greater trochanter is lateral and the lesser trochanter is medial.

What is the function of the longitudinal arch of the foot?

A.  Provides flexion for the foot B.  Connects the ankle and toes C.  Socket for attachment of metatarsals D.  Shock-absorbing support

D.  Shock-absorbing support
The springy, longitudinal arch provides a strong, shock-absorbing type support for the weight of the body.

Which of the following is a primary bone malignancy?

A.  Osteogenic sarcoma B.  Osteoma C.  Rickets D.  Osteomyelitis

A.  Osteogenic sarcoma
The pathologic condition osteogenic sarcoma, literally means tumor (-oma) of the flesh (sarc), originating (-genic) in the bone (oste). It is a primary bone malignancy.

What is the name of the groove between the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus?

A.  Trochlear B.  Humeral C.  Bicipital D.  Surgical

C.  Bicipital
The bicipital groove is also known as the intertubercular groove.

Which of the following is a benign bone tumor?

A.  Osteogenic sarcoma B.  Osteoma C.  Osteoarthritis D.  Osteodystrophy

B.  Osteoma
Osteoma, meaning tumor (-oma) of the bone (oste) is a benign bone condition.

Where does the central ray enter for an AP projection of the 1st digit (thumb)?

A.  1st metacarpophalangeal joint B.  1st proximal interphalangeal joint C.  1st distal interphalangeal joint D.  1st carpophalangeal joint

A.  1st metacarpophalangeal joint
The 1st digit as well as the 1st metacarpal bone should be included in an AP projection of the thumb. Therefore, the CR would enter at the 1st metacarpophalangeal joint.

What is the area called that separates the medial and lateral femoral condyles posteriorly?

A.  Intertrochanteric fossa B.  Olecranon fossa C.  Epicondyloid fossa D.  Intercondyloid fossa

D.  Intercondyloid fossa

Inter means between. Therefore, the space between the condyles is the intercondyloid fossa.

What are the names of the bones that form the instep of the foot?

A.  Tarsals B.  Phalanges C.  Metatarsals D.  Cuneiforms

C.  Metatarsals
The five metatarsals make up the instep of the foot. The 1st metatarsal is medial and the 5th metatarsal is lateral.

Which of the following would NOT be demonstrated on a medial oblique projection of the foot?

A.  Intertarsal joints B.  Intermetatarsal spaces C.  Tarsal bones D.  Ankle joint

D.  Ankle joint
The ankle joint is not well demonstrated because the bones of the lower leg superimpose the joint space.

What are the names for the bones located in the palm of the hand?

A.  Phalanges B.  Metacarpals C.  Tarsals D.  Volars

B.  Metacarpals
There are five metacarpals making up the palm of the hand. The 1st metacarpal is on the lateral or thumb side of the hand.

Which of the following would be another name for the translateral hip projection?

1. Cross-table lateral
2. O.R. lateral
3. Inferosuperior projection
A.  1 & 2 only B.  1 & 3 only C.  2 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

D.  1, 2 & 3

Called by many names (also a axiolateral projection), the translateral hip projection is used when the femur cannot be moved.

Which carpal bone lies between the scaphoid and the triquetrum?

A.  Lunate B.  Hamate C.  Capitate D.  Pisiform

A.  Lunate
The lunate is the second bone in the proximal row of carpal bones.

Which of the following positions/projections requires the foot vertical and the tube angled 40 degrees cephalad?

A.  AP ankle B.  Cross-table lateral hip C.  Plantodorsal, axial calcaneus D.  Dorsoplantar foot

C.  Plantodorsal, axial calcaneus
The plantodorsal semi-axial (axial would be straight down the long axis of the bone) projection of the calcaneus requires the foot to be vertical and the tube angled 40 degrees cephalad.

What angle joins the medial and lateral border of the scapula?

A.  Superior angle B.  Inferior angle C.  Lateral angle D.  Medial angle

B.  Inferior angle
The scapula has three borders and three angles. The angle between the medial and lateral borders is known as the inferior angle because it is located at the inferior aspect of the scapula.

The extremities, the shoulder girdles and the pelvis make up which of the following?

A.  Bony skeleton B.  Axial skeleton C.  Appendicular skeleton D.  False skeleton

C.  Appendicular skeleton
The skull and spine make up the axial skeleton.

The lateral cuneiform articulates with which of the following bones of the foot?

1. 3rd metatarsal
2. Cuboid
3. Navicular
A.  1 only B.  1 & 2 only C.  2 & 3 only D.  1, 2 & 3

D.  1, 2 & 3

The lateral (3rd) cuneiform articulates with the 3rd metatarsal, the intermediate (2nd) cuneiform with the 2nd metatarsal and the medial (1st) with the 1st metatarsal. The cuboid lies laterally and the navicular posteriorly.

What is the term used to describe the inferior surface of the foot?

A.  Dorsal B.  Plantar C.  Volar D.  Palmar

B.  Plantar
The bottom (inferior) of the foot is the plantar surface and the top (superior) of the foot is the dorsal surface.

Which of the following is NOT well demonstrated on an AP projection of the elbow?

A.  Radial head B.  Radial tuberosity C.  Condyles of the humerus D.  Olecranon process

D.  Olecranon process
The olecranon process is superimposed by the distal humerus on an AP projection of the elbow.

For a cross-table lateral of the hip, where is the central ray directed?

A.  Parallel to the body (shaft) of the femur B.  Parallel to the neck of the femur C.  Perpendicular to the neck of the femur D.  Perpendicular to the acetabulum

C.  Perpendicular to the neck of the femur
To prevent foreshortening or elongation, the radiographer must get the CR perpendicular to the long axis of the neck of the femur.

Where should the central ray enter for a lateral projection of the 1st toe?

A.  Interphalangeal joint B.  Proximal interphalangeal joint C.  Distal interphalangeal joint D.  Head of the 1st metatarsal

A.  Interphalangeal joint
The 1st toe (1st digit or great toe) only has two phalanges and the CR should enter between those two phalanges (the interphalangeal joint).

What are the routine positions/projections for a wrist?

A.  AP and lateral B.  PA and oblique C.  PA, oblique and lateral D.  PA, oblique and ulnar deviation

C.  PA, oblique and lateral
A PA projection, a 45 degree oblique position (with the hand resting on the medial aspect) and a lateral position are considered the routine for a wrist.

The scapula is classified as what type of bone?

A.  Long bone B.  Short bone C.  Irregular bone D.  Flat bone

D.  Flat bone

The scapula is a triangular shaped bone that has a large flat area called the body or wing, hence the reason it is classified as a flat bone.

What is the name of the radiographic procedure where contrast medium is injected into the veins of the leg?

A.  Lymphangiography B.  Arteriography C.  Scanography D.  Venography

D.  Venography
Lymphaniography injects contrast into the lymph vessels of the foot; arteriography injects contrast into any artery; scanography measures the length of a long bone, usually the femur.

Pronating the hand flat will put the thumb in what position?

A.  AP B.  PA C.  Oblique D.  Lateral

C.  Oblique
By pronating the hand (palm down), the thumb is in a natural oblique position.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus?

A.  AP internal rotation B.  AP external rotation C.  Transthoracic lateral D.  Transaxillary

B.  AP external rotation
An AP projection of the humerus will best demonstrate the greater tubercle. This projection is accomplished by externally rotating the humerus until the humeral condyles are parallel to the image receptor.

Which of the following will place the humerus in a true lateral position?

A.  AP internal rotation B.  AP external rotation C.  Abduction D.  Adduction

A.  AP internal rotation
To get a true lateral position of the humerus, the radiographer must rotate the arm internally until the epicondyles of the humerus are perpendicular to the image receptor.

What are the two small bones called that are located at the first metatarsophalangeal joint?

A.  Sesamoids B.  Phalanges C.  Tarsals D.  Metatarsals

A.  Sesamoids
The sesamoid bones are located in a tendon in the great toe.

Which side of the foot is closest to the image receptor for a lateral position of the foot?

A.  Plantar B.  Dorsal C.  Lateral D.  Medial

C.  Lateral
The lateral surface of the foot is closest to the image receptor because this is more comfortable for the patient.

How many tarsal bones are there in the foot?

A.  3 B.  5 C.  7 D.  9

C.  7
There are eight carpal bones in the wrist but only seven tarsal bones in the foot. Can you visually recognize and name all of them?

Which of the following is described as a shrinkage or wasting of bone due to inactivity?

A.  Callus B.  Sprain C.  Atrophy D.  Bursa

C.  Atrophy
Atrophy, meaning without (a-) development or nourishment (-trophy) is the wasting away of bone and muscle due to lack of use.

The term popliteal refers to which of the following anatomical areas?

A.  Anterior knee B.  Posterior knee C.  Lateral knee D.  Medial knee

B.  Posterior knee
The area posterior to the knee is known as the popliteal area. Therefore, the popliteal artery and the popliteal vein are located posterior to the knee joint.

What is the rounded projection on the anterior, proximal surface of the tibia called?

A.  Tibial plateau B.  Tibial tuberosity C.  Intercondylar eminence D.  Tibial condyle

B.  Tibial tuberosity
The purpose of the tibial tuberosity is for the attachment of the tendon of the quadriceps muscle of the thigh.

What is the most proximal end of the fibula called?

A.  Head B.  Neck C.  Lateral malleolus D.  Apex

D.  Apex
The styloid process of the fibula is near the knee joint and helps form the proximal, tibiofibular joint.

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?

Which projection of the ankle will open up the distal tibiofibular joint?

What projection of the foot will best demonstrate the status of the longitudinal arch?

How should the foot be positioned to demonstrate the ankle mortise?